Antigen-Antibody Interactions Flashcards
Terms : Hide Images [1]
| 5992006770 | Antigen-antibody interactions results from the ______ of the epitope + antibody | Specificity | 0 | |
| 5992009629 | Most of the amino acids of the antibody that make contact with antigen are located in the _____ region of H & L chains | CDR region (hypervariable regions) | 1 | |
| 5992012940 | Most amino acids of the antigen that make contact with the antibody are (sequential, discontinuous) | Discontinuous/Conformational | 2 | |
| 5992019469 | When does cross-reactivity occur? A) When immune cells within the host begin attacking host's cells B) When antibody made to a specific epitope on one antigen binds to an epitope on another C) When 2 antibodies switch isotypes with eachother and begin to attack different cells | B) When antibody made to a specific epitope on one antigen binds to an epitope on another | 3 | |
| 5992026514 | CD4+ cells are found on both T Helper cells and _____ | Neurons * CD4+ is the same antigen present on multiple different antigens/cells | 4 | |
| 5992058437 | An example of an antigen that is shared in many species and has many epitopes in common is: | Albumin | 5 | |
| 5992059806 | The _______ portion of a protein contains the same epitopes between species | Conserved | 6 | |
| 5992061227 | What causes serum sickness? | If you are given horse antiserum, it contains albumin that has similar epitopes as our own albumin, so it causes an antibody response | 7 | |
| 5992076106 | Completely different antigens can share a common epitope if they have the same _____ | 3-D conformational shape | 8 | |
| 5992080754 | T/F: A protein and a polysaccharide can contain the same epitope | True, although different chemically, they may have the same linear amino acid sequence or shape of epitope | 9 | |
| 5992094854 | A ____ is an altered toxin that has a similar epitope, but differs in 1-2 amino acids to provide protecting for the original/harmful toxin if encountered | Toxoid | 10 | |
| 5992120774 | Cross-reactive antibodies can lead to ____ diseases | Autoimmune diseases | 11 | |
| 5992120775 | What causes Rheumatic Fever? | Antibodies made against M protein of S. Pyogenes binds to epitope on heart muscle cells | 12 | |
| 5992122604 | What causes Chagas' disease? | Antibodies made to Trypanosoma bin to an epitope on nerve cells | 13 | |
| 5992140259 | T/F: Polyreactive antibodies have high specificity | False, low specificity - Can bind multiple antigenic epitopes | 14 | |
| 5992142821 | Which antibody is usually the first produced in response to B cell activation? | IgM | 15 | |
| 5992144366 | Why are polyreactive antibodies important? | Important for early defense, since they can bind with less stringent requirements | 16 | |
| 5992148292 | T/F: Polyreactive antibodies have not yet undergone affinity maturation | True | 17 | |
| 5992156551 | Affinity is related to _____(specificity, multiplicity) | Specificity | 18 | |
| 5992159776 | Affinity is the strength of interactions between antigen and antibody at a single ______ site | Fab (binding site) | 19 | |
| 5992167213 | T/F: The interactions between antigen and antibody are covalent interactions | False | 20 | |
| 5992166061 | The affinity of an antibody for an antigen is measured by rates of: | Association/Disassociation | 21 | |
| 5992163324 | Antibodies that bind quickly and have low dissociation rates have (high, low) affinity | High | 22 | |
| 5992164461 | Antibodies that bind poorly and have high dissociation rates have (high, low) affinity | Low | 23 | |
| 5992168306 | The higher the specificity an antibody is for an antigen, the (higher, lower) the affinity | Higher | 24 | |
| 5992185612 | The avidity of an antigen-antibody interaction is the strength at ____ binding sites | ALL binding sites (All Fabs) | 25 | |
| 5992186663 | T/F: Avidity can compensate for low affinity | True | 26 | |
| 5992187349 | How many Fab's does IgM have? | 10 (Pentamer with 2 Fabs per monomer) | 27 | |
| 5992188832 | IgM antibodies have (high, low) affinity but (high, low) avidity | Low affinity - First made, no affinity maturation. Skeleton key fit. High avidity - Multiple binding sites, so can bind just as strong as IgG | 28 | |
| 5992192128 | What characteristic of an antigen can make a higher avidity? | High epitope density Ex) Polysaccharides - Worse binding, but bind well due to repeating units | 29 | |
| 5992193071 | Avidity relates to _____(specificity, multiplicity) | Multiplicity | 30 | |
| 5992200470 | Which of the following does not describe force between antigen + antibody molecules? A) Non-covalent B) Strong C) Reversible D) Dependent on distance | B )Strong These interactions are weak | 31 | |
| 5992203606 | What type of bond does not contribute to antibody and antigen interactions? A) Ionic B) H bonds C) Covalent bonds D) Hydrophobic interactions E) Van der Waals forces | C) Covalent bonds | 32 | |
| 5992216868 | T/F: Serological assays can test for the antibody or the antigen | True Antibody - Indirect Antigen - Direct | 33 | |
| 5992219559 | What is the main difference between precipitation and agglutination reactions? | Precipitation - Antigen is soluble (like a toxin) Agglutination - Antigen is particular (large, like a RBC or cell) | 34 | |
| 5992231636 | Precipitation and agglutination reactions both depend on the: | Cross-linking of antigens and antibodies | 35 | |
| 5992233469 | The zone of equivalence is the point at which cross-linking can occur due to appropriate: | Ratios of antibody and antigen Forms large, insoluble complexes | 36 | |
| 5992235788 | If too much antibody or antigen is present, it causes the _____ effect | Prozone effect - No cross linking |  | 37 |
| 5992238049 | Which antibodies are best for precipitation and agglutination reactions? | IgM *Can also use IgG, but must use a cross-linker | 38 | |
| 5992317483 | What are the 3 types of Preciptation tests? | 1) Single/Radial Immunodiffusion 2) Double immunodiffusion 3) Immunoelectrophoresis | 39 | |
| 5992257032 | In the Single/Radial immunodiffusion, what is added to the gel and allowed to solidify? | Antibody (Known, bought from company) |  | 40 |
| 5992257980 | In the Single/Radial immunodiffusion, what is added to the well in the center of the gel? | Antigen from patient (Unknown) | 41 | |
| 5992260752 | Once the antigen radiates out, it forms a ring at the ____ | Zone of equivalence | 42 | |
| 5992261621 | The diameter of the rings formed is proportional to ____ | Antigen concentration |  | 43 |
| 5992285009 | In Double immunodiffusion, what is put into the gel and allowed to solidify? | Nothing! | 44 | |
| 5992286406 | In double immunodiffusion, 2 wells are cut and the ___ & ___ are placed into separate wells | Antigen and antibody |  | 45 |
| 5992288199 | In double immunodiffusion, a visible line precipitate forms at the: | Zone of equivalence | | 46 |
| 5992306208 | T/F: You can use double immunodiffusion to test multiple antigen/antibody samples | True | 47 | |
| 5992314127 | Immunoelectrophoresis separates the proteins of an antigen based on: | Size and charge | 48 | |
| 5992477205 | Blood typing is a ____ reaction | Agglutination | 49 | |
| 5992326110 | In direct hemagglutination reactions, what is the antigen? | Erythrocytes | 50 | |
| 5992381208 | T/F: A person with A blood will have anti-A antibodies | False, Anti-B | 51 | |
| 5992358769 | Forward typing is considered (direct, indirect) method | Direct | 52 | |
| 5992358770 | In forward typing, what is known? | The antibody (either Anti-A or Anti-B) Purchased from company | 53 | |
| 5992359713 | In forward typing, what is unknown? | Patient RBC's - We don't know their blood type | 54 | |
| 5992363337 | In forward typing, if agglutination occurs with Anti-A antibodies, what blood type are they? A) A B) B C) AB D) O | A) A because binding will occur if the antigen IS present on their RBCs | 55 | |
| 5992365680 | In forward typing, if no agglutination occurs when Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are added, what blood type are they? A) A B) B C) AB D) O | D) O This means they have neither | 56 | |
| 5992366637 | In forward typing, if agglutination occurs when BOTH Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are added, what blood type are they? A) A B) B C) AB D) O | C) AB | 57 | |
| 5992384586 | In reverse typing, what is the known? | Blood type (Lab-bought RBCs with known type) | 58 | |
| 5992385324 | In reverse typing, what is unknown? | Patient serum sample (antibody type) | 59 | |
| 5992388769 | If the known blood type is B and agglutination occurs on patient serum addition, what blood type is the person? | A *This means patient's serum has Anti-B antibodies, making them type A | 60 | |
| 5992403613 | Which blood type will not clot at all? | Type AB | 61 | |
| 5992486111 | In indirect/passive agglutination, what is the known? | Antigen attached to latex beads | 62 | |
| 5992487339 | In indirect/passive agglutination, what is unknown? | Patient serum sample | 63 | |
| 5992488468 | Agglutination occurs if the serum is antibody (positive, negative) | Positive | 64 | |
| 5992491104 | T/F: Bacterial agglutination can determine if a person is currently infected with the bacteria | False, only if they were exposed to it | 65 | |
| 5992500541 | Enzyme-linked assays detect antibody binding by a change in: | Color | 66 | |
| 5992500542 | The primary antibody binds to the: | Antigen | 67 | |
| 5992501514 | The secondary antibody binds to the: | Fc region of the primary antibody or the antigen | 68 | |
| 5992502204 | The enzyme is linked to the ____ antibody | Secondary antibody (can never have a 2ndary antibody from the PATIENT) | 69 | |
| 5992520251 | In the Western Blot, proteins are first separated by ____ | Gel Electrophoresis | 70 | |
| 5992522571 | After they are separated, proteins are transferred onto a membrane, and ____ is added | Primary antibody - Binds to the antigen on the membrane. Then secondary antibody binds to Fc portion of the primary antibody. | 71 | |
| 5992537329 | In Western Blotting, the thing from the patient is the: | Primary antibody serum | 72 | |
| 5992542847 | The Western Blott is used to confirm: | HIV | 73 | |
| 5992552013 | In an Indirect ELISA, what is first added to the well? | Antigen (known) | 74 | |
| 5992552580 | In an Indirect ELISA, what is the second thing added to the well? | Patient serum possible containing antibody ( Unknown) | 75 | |
| 5992555193 | In an Indirect ELISA, what is third thing added to the well? | Secondary antibody with enzyme | 76 | |
| 5992555932 | The indirect ELISA is used for: | HIV testing | 77 | |
| 5992572755 | In an Direct ELISA, what is the first thing added to the well? | Primary antibody (known, bought from company) | 78 | |
| 5992574022 | In an Direct ELISA, what is the second thing added to the well? | Patient serum sample containing suspected antigen | 79 | |
| 5992576222 | In an Direct ELISA, what is the third thing added to the well? | Secondary antibody containing enzyme | 80 | |
| 5992577676 | What does direct Eliza test for? | Pregnancy (detect HCG) | 81 | |
| 5992580506 | T/F: Both antibodies must recognize the same epitope | False, different epitopes | 82 | |
| 5992600274 | In flow cytometry, _____ antibodies are bound to cell-surface antigens | Fluorescent antibodies |  | 83 |
| 5992602083 | T/F: Cells with and without the fluorescent antibody can be counted | True | 84 | |
| 5992613331 | In FACS, the cells are tagged in the same way, but after the cells are identified, they are: | Separated based on their fluorescent marker so they tests can be done on an individual population | 85 | |
| 5992640000 | Lymphocyte proliferation assays are used to measure the response of a ____ cell to an antigen | CD4+ cell | 86 | |
| 5992642480 | What are the 2 ways T cell proliferation can be measured? | 1) Number of IL-2 produce by CD4+ cells - by direct ELISA 2) Amount of tritium-labeled thymidine in the proliferating cells | 87 | |
| 5992654601 | The lymphocyte proliferation assay can be used to determine: | Compatibility between donor and recipient transplants | 88 | |
| 5992666136 | Cytotoxic Assays measure the response of ___ cells to an antigen | CD8+ cells | 89 | |
| 5992668426 | The target cell is marked with either: | Lactate dehydrogenase Chromium sulfate | 90 | |
| 5992669669 | The markers are only released if the cell is: | Killed by the CTL | 91 | |
| 5992670678 | The LDH can be measured by: | Direct ELISA | 92 |