I am having trouble with this question.

Assess the validity of the following statement:
"The influence of American farmers on American politics, government, and economy has decreased since 1700"

Okay so i know that due to increasing mechanization and technology, it allows less labor force, which then results in less farmer population and thus less influence on politics, government, and economy.
But i need to focus only on the government aspect. (government meaning legislation pertaining farmers. did they help them or not?)

I need help really bad! Thanks!