| 719626840 | 1) The compound CH3CH2NHCH3 is classified as a
A) primary amine.
B) secondary amine.
C) tertiary amine.
D) quaternary amine.
E) hydrated amine. | B | |
| 719626841 | 2) The compound CH3CH2NH2 is classified as a
A) primary amine.
B) secondary amine.
C) tertiary amine.
D) quaternary amine.
E) hydrated amine. | a | |
| 719626842 | 3) Which of the following compounds is an amine?
A) (CH3CH2)2NH
B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CO2CH3
C) CH3CH2CH2CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3
D) CH3CH=O
E) CH3COCH3 | a | |
| 719626843 | ) Aminobenzene is properly known as
A) toluene.
B) aniline.
C) amidine.
D) histidine.
E) phenylamine. | b | |
| 719626844 | 8) Amines contain the element
A) nitrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) sulfur.
D) astatine.
E) arginine. | a | |
| 719626845 | 9) In what kind of amine is the nitrogen directly bonded to two carbon atoms?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) amide | b | |
| 719626846 | 10) When naming amines according to the IUPAC system, the -e in the corresponding alkane is replaced with
A) -amide.
B) -amine.
C) -ine.
D) -ide.
E) -ane. | b | |
| 719626847 | 11) Aniline is a(n)
A) primary aromatic amine.
B) secondary aromatic amine.
C) heterocyclic amine.
D) aliphatic amine.
E) tertiary amine. | a | |
| 719626848 | 19) What relation does the boiling point of an amine have to a similar hydrocarbon?
A) higher
B) lower
C) very simila | a | |
| 719626849 | 20) Amines can form __________ bonds with other molecules.
A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) nonpolar
D) metallic
E) triple | b | |
| 719626850 | 23) The odor of an amine can be neutralized with
A) water.
B) acids.
C) bases.
D) detergents.
E) solvents. | b | |
| 719626851 | 25) In what form are amine-containing drugs often administered?
A) free base
B) sodium salt
C) amine salt
D) water solution
E) oil solution | c | |
| 719626852 | 26) What kind of pharmacologic activity is found in the amines Procaine® and Lidocaine®?
A) stimulant
B) anesthetic
C) local anesthetic
D) disinfectant
E) fungicide | c | |
| 719626853 | 27) What are alkaloids?
A) physiologically active nitrogen compounds derived from plants
B) anesthetics found in plants
C) flavoring agents found in fruits and vegetables
D) preservatives found in animal tissue
E) natural steroids | a | |
| 719626854 | 29) Among the choices below, identify the heterocyclic amine found in DNA.
A) piperidine
B) pyridine
C) pyrrole
D) purine
E) imidazole | d | |
| 719626855 | 30) Nicotine, coniine, quinine, atropine, and morphine are all examples of
A) ethers.
B) esters.
C) carboxylic acids.
D) alkaloids.
E) amides. | d | |
| 719626856 | 31) Procaine® and Lidocaine® were developed by modifying the structure of
A) cocaine.
B) nicotine.
C) harmaline.
D) meperidine.
E) caffeine. | a | |
| 719626857 | 32) Physiologically active nitrogen-containing compounds produced by plants are called
A) aromatics.
B) alkaloids.
C) esters.
D) polymers.
E) ethers. | b | |
| 719626858 | 33) Which of the following is NOT an alkaloid?
A) nicotine
B) caffeine
C) diethylamine
D) quinine
E) cocaine | c | |
| 719626859 | 34) What functional group is always found in alkaloids (such as caffeine, nicotine, and digitalis)?
A) amide
B) acid
C) ether
D) amine
E) ester | d | |
| 719626860 | 37) When acetic acid reacts with ammonia, NH3, the reaction called amidation yields
A) acetamine.
B) ammonium acetate.
C) ethylammonium hydroxide.
D) amino acetate.
E) acetamide. | e | |
| 719626861 | 43) Which chemical class does phenobarbital belong to?
A) ester
B) amine
C) amide
D) alkane
E) ether | c | |
| 719626862 | 44) Amides are derivatives of __________ and __________.
A) amines; esters
B) amines; carboxylic acids
C) alkanes; amines
D) carboxylic acids; alcohols
E) alcohols; carboxylic acids | b | |
| 719626863 | 45) What kind of compound is urea?
A) ester
B) acid
C) amide
D) ketone
E) amine | c | |
| 719626864 | 46) What is the chemical classification of the barbiturate sedatives?
A) cyclic amides
B) cyclic ethers
C) cyclic amines
D) cyclic esters
E) cyclic acids | a | |
| 719626865 | 47) Amides having fewer than __________ carbons are generally water soluble.
A) five
B) six
C) ten
D) eleven
E) twelve | b | |
| 719626866 | 52) What pharmacologically active amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms encountered in an allergic reaction?
A) histamine
B) epinephrine
C) diphenhydramine
D) phenylephrine
E) dopamine | a | |
| 719626867 | 54) A neurotransmitter
A) transmits neurons
B) transmits neutrons
C) transmits a nerve impulse
D) signals loss of appetite
E) transmits ideas from person to person | c | |
| 719626868 | 55) A deficiency of which amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
A) histamine
B) dopamine
C) epinephrine
D) diphenhydramine
E) methedrine | b | |
| 722542307 | 56) In response to allergic reactions or injury to cells, the body increases the production of
A) diphenhydramine.
B) antihistamine.
C) histamine.
D) epinephrine.
E) dopamine. | c | |
| 722542308 | Multiple-Choice Questions
2) Collagen, a protein found in tendons and cartilage, would be classified as a __________ protein.
A) catalytic
B) structural
C) transport
D) storage
E) hormone | b | |
| 722542309 | 3) Wool is primarily made up of
A) protein.
B) carbohydrate.
C) globin.
D) triacylglycerols.
E) enkephalin. | a | |
| 722542310 | 4) Sucrase, the protein that facilitates the hydrolysis of sucrose, would be classified as a __________ protein.
A) transport
B) hormonal
C) catalytic
D) structural
E) contractile | c | |
| 723360481 | ) Which of the following would be most likely to be deficient in at least one essential amino acid?
A) eggs
B) milk
C) beans
D) steak
E) ham | c | |
| 723360482 | 8) Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body and must be obtained from the diet are called
A) essential.
B) polar.
C) nonpolar.
D) complete.
E) incomplete. | a | |
| 723360483 | 10) A completely vegetarian diet will contain all the essential amino acids if it includes
A) wheat and rice.
B) rice and beans.
C) almonds and walnuts.
D) corn and beans.
E) wheat and corn. | b | |
| 723360484 | 14) At a pH > 9, the zwitterion of glycine (pI=6.0) will have
A) a net positive charge.
B) a net negative charge.
C) an overall charge of zero.
D) low solubility in water.
E) a negative charge on the nitrogen. | B | |
| 723360485 | 15) At a pH < 5, the zwitterion for alanine (pI = 6) will have
A) a net positive charge.
B) a net negative charge.
C) an overall charge of zero.
D) low solubility in water.
E) a negative charge on the carboxyl group. | A | |
| 723360486 | 17) Consider a mixture of the amino acids lysine (pI = 9.7), tyrosine (pI = 5.7), and glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at a pH 5.7 that is subjected to an electric current. __________ will migrate towards the positive electrode(+).
A) Lysine
B) Tyrosine
C) Glutamic acid
D) All of the amino acids | C | |
| 723360487 | 18) Consider a mixture of the amino acids lysine (pI = 9.7), tyrosine (pI = 5.7), and glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at a pH 5.7 that is subjected to an electric current. __________ will remain stationary.
A) Lysine
B) Tyrosine
C) Glutamic acid
D) All of the amino acids | B | |
| 723360488 | 19) In a typical amino acid zwitterion, the carboxylate end is
A) positively charged.
B) negatively charged.
C) neutral.
D) soluble in a nonpolar solvent.
E) attached to an amine. | B | |
| 723360489 | 23) The peptide bonds that combine amino acids in a protein are
A) ester bonds.
B) ether bonds.
C) amide bonds.
D) glycosidic bonds.
E) sulfide bonds. | C | |
| 723360490 | 24) In the peptide Ala-Try-Gly-Phe, the N-terminal amino acid is
A) alanine.
B) phenylalanine.
C) tryptophan.
D) aspartic acid.
E) glycine. | A | |
| 723360491 | 25) In the peptide Ser-Cys-Ala-Gly, the C-terminal end is
A) serine.
B) serotonin.
C) glycine.
D) glycerine.
E) alanine. | C | |
| 723360492 | 28) A peptide bond contains which kind of functional group?
A) alcohol
B) amine
C) amide
D) carboxylic acid
E) ketone | C | |
| 723360493 | 29) A chain made of more than 50 amino acids is usually referred to as a(n)
A) peptide.
B) protein.
C) enzyme.
D) globulin.
E) hormone | B | |
| 723360494 | 30) Which of the following is an example of a secondary protein structure?
A) dipeptide
B) triglyceride
C) a helix
D) amino acid
E) fatty acid | C | |
| 723360495 | 31) The α helix of the secondary structure of a protein is held together by __________ between two widely separated parts of a protein chain.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) disulfide bridges
C) salt bridges
D) hydrophilic interactions
E) hydrophobic interactions | A | |
| 723360496 | 32) In the β-pleated sheet secondary structure of a protein, two or more amino acid sequences in separate parts of the protein are held together
A) in a coil, by hydrogen bonding.
B) in random order, due to hydrophobic interactions.
C) in a triple helix.
D) in a double helix.
E) in a zig-zag conformation, by hydrogen bonding. | E | |
| 723360497 | 33) Enkephalins are polypeptides that have
A) a sweet taste.
B) a bitter taste.
C) extra caloric value.
D) pain-killing properties.
E) hormone activity. | D | |
| 723360498 | 34) Enkephalins, naturally produced opiates in the body, are found in
A) muscles and bone tissue.
B) brain and kidney tissue.
C) thalamus and spinal cord tissue.
D) heart and lung tissue.
E) pancreas and liver tissue. | C | |
| 723360499 | 36) Which of the following is a secondary protein structure?
A) α helix
B) Ser-Met-Ala-Gly-Ile
C) disulfide bond
D) salt bridges
E) hydrophobic interactions | A | |
| 723360500 | 37) The secondary structure of collagen is distinguished by
A) single α helix strands.
B) double α helix strands.
C) many α helixes wound into fibrils.
D) a braided triple helix.
E) many glycoside links. | D | |
| 723360501 | 39) Hemoglobin is an example of a protein with
A) primary structure only.
B) two protein chains held together.
C) a globular structure.
D) primarily a β-pleated sheet structure.
E) primarily an α helix structure. | C | |
| 723360502 | 40) The heme in hemoglobin is a(n)
A) protein chain.
B) small molecule within a protein.
C) helix area in the hemoglobin molecule.
D) pleated sheet area in the hemoglobin molecule.
E) oxygen molecule within the hemoglobin molecule. | B | |
| 723360503 | 41) Within hemoglobin, the heme functions as
A) a disulfide bridge.
B) an oxygen carrier.
C) a reducing agent.
D) an α subunit.
E) one of the four protein subunits. | B | |
| 723360504 | 43) The fibrous protein responsible for the structure of hair and wool is
A) keratin.
B) collagen.
C) endorphin.
D) myosin.
E) casein. | A | |
| 723360505 | 48) The function of myoglobin is to
A) carry vitamins in the blood.
B) carry oxygen in the blood.
C) support the skeletal muscles.
D) carry oxygen in the muscle.
E) provide strength in cartilage. | D | |
| 723360506 | 49) In sickle-cell anemia, the hemoglobin molecules
A) come apart into separate chains.
B) enlarge to twice normal size.
C) clump together into insoluble fibers.
D) dissolve in the plasma.
E) undergo crenation. | C | |
| 723360507 | 50) Acids and bases denature a protein by disrupting
A) peptide bonds and ionic bonds.
B) amide bonds and alkene bonds
C) hydrophobic interactions and peptide bonds.
D) ionic bonds and hydrophobic interactions.
E) ionic bonds and hydrogen bonds. | E | |
| 723360508 | 51) Heat denatures a protein by disrupting
A) ionic bonds and peptide bonds.
B) hydrophobic bonds and hydrogen bonds.
C) peptide bonds and hydrophobic bonds.
D) disulfide bonds and peptide bonds.
E) hydrogen bonds and disulfide bonds. | B | |
| 723360509 | 52) Denaturation of a protein
A) changes the primary structure of a protein.
B) disrupts the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein.
C) is always irreversible.
D) hydrolyzes peptide bonds.
E) can only occur in a protein with quaternary structure. | B | |
| 723360510 | 53) One heavy metal that can cause denaturation of a protein is
A) silver.
B) sodium.
C) barium.
D) iron.
E) calcium. | A | |
| 726183912 | 54) Heavy metals denature proteins by
A) releasing amino acids.
B) disrupting hydrophobic interactions.
C) changing the pH of the protein solution.
D) changing the temperature of the protein solution.
E) disrupting disulfide bonds. | e | |
| 726183913 | 55) An acid can denature a protein by
A) agitating the protein chains.
B) disrupting hydrogen bonds between R groups chains.
C) disrupting hydrophobic interactions within a protein chain.
D) removing helping molecules such as heme.
E) breaking disulfide bridges. | b | |
| 726271601 | 1) Compared to an uncatalyzed reaction, an enzyme-catalyzed reaction
A) uses less substrate.
B) produces different products.
C) occurs at a faster rate.
D) requires more energy.
E) requires a higher temperature. | c | |
| 726271602 | 3) The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex is the __________ step in enzyme action.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) last | a | |
| 726271603 | 4) The active site of an enzyme
A) is remote from the site of substrate attachment.
B) is converted to a product.
C) catalyzes the reaction.
D) increases the energy of reaction.
E) includes the entire enzyme. | c | |
| 726271604 | 5) The general function of an enzyme in the body is to
A) catalyze chemical reactions.
B) maintain a neutral pH.
C) act as a reactant in carbohydrate storage.
D) maintain homeostasis.
E) eliminate waste products from the blood. | a | |
| 726271605 | 6) The enzymes that extract energy from biomolecules for our use are located in the
A) plasma.
B) cell mitochondria.
C) lymph.
D) urine.
E) lipoproteins. | b | |
| 726271606 | 8) In any reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, the reacting molecule is called the
A) substrate.
B) cofactor.
C) coenzyme.
D) isozyme.
E) allostere. | a | |
| 726271607 | 9) When a substance bonds to an enzyme for reaction, its place of binding is the
A) allosteric site.
B) primary pocket.
C) end pocket.
D) primary site.
E) active site. | e | |
| 726271608 | 10) Substances that react under the influence of an enzyme are usually held to the enzyme by
A) peptide bonds.
B) side chains of amino acids in the enzyme protein.
C) ester bonds.
D) pH changes.
E) competitive inhibition. | b | |
| 726271609 | 11) Urease catalyzes only the hydrolysis of urea, and no other substrates. This limited activity is called
A) absolute specificity.
B) extreme specificity.
C) rigid specificity.
D) noncompetitive specificity.
E) hyperspecificity. | a | |
| 726271610 | 12) The presence of enzymes to catalyze bioreactions in our bodies allows
A) us to eat non-nutritious substances without consequence.
B) the activation energy of a reaction to be raised.
C) the rate of a desired chemical reaction to slow down.
D) bioreactions to occur under extreme conditions of temperature and pH.
E) bioreactions to take place under mild conditions. | e | |
| 726271611 | 13) Hexokinase catalyzes only the addition of phosphate to any hexose sugar. This type of activity is called
A) regional specificity.
B) collateral specificity.
C) group specificity.
D) noncompetitive specificity.
E) general specificity. | c | |
| 726271612 | 14) In the lock-and-key model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site is thought of as
A) a rigid, nonflexible shape that fits the substrate exactly.
B) an area of the enzyme that can adjust to fit the substrate shape.
C) a key-like shape that fits into a pocket of the substrate surface.
D) a hydrophilic area on the enzyme surface.
E) a lock that bars a noncompetitive inhibitor from reacting. | a | |
| 726271613 | 15) In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site
A) stays the same shape during substrate binding.
B) adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate.
C) stays the same shape while causing a change in the shape of the substrate.
D) uses an inhibitor to adjust its shape for the substrate.
E) uses a cofactor to change the shape of a substrate. | b | |
| 726271614 | 16) The function of the enzyme-substrate complex is to provide an alternative reaction pathway that
A) lowers the energy of the products.
B) lowers the energy of the substrate.
C) changes the concentration of the substrate.
D) decreases the activation energy for the reaction.
E) changes the possible product formed. | d | |
| 726271615 | 18) An increase in concentration of the enzyme LDH in the blood can be used to detect
A) heart attack.
B) kidney damage.
C) anemia.
D) uremia.
E) bulimia. | a | |
| 726271616 | 19) Creatine kinase can be used in the diagnosis of
A) hepatitis.
B) rickets.
C) heart attack.
D) prostatitis.
E) cancer. | c | |
| 726271617 | 20) To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of lactose to galactose and glucose belong?
A) oxidoreductase
B) transferase
C) hydrolase
D) lyase
E) isomerase | c | |
| 726271618 | 23) The hydrolysis of ester bonds in triglycerides is catalyzed by a(n)
A) lipase.
B) lyase.
C) isomerase.
D) hydrolase.
E) oxidoreductase. | a | |
| 726271619 | 24) The optimum temperature for sucrase activity is 37 °C. The hydrolysis of sucrose is slowest at which temperature in the choices below?
A) 0 °C
B) 10 °C
C) 20 °C
D) 25 °C
E) 45 °C | a | |
| 726271620 | 25) "Physiological conditions" for reactions within the body are approximately
A) pH 3 and 37 °C.
B) pH 7 and 37 °C.
C) pH 7 and 37 °F.
D) pH 8 and 273 °C.
E) pH 7 and 273 K. | b | |
| 726271621 | 26) "Physiological pH", the pH for optimum activity for most enzymes, is a pH equal to
A) 3.0.
B) 5.4.
C) 7.4.
D) 8.6.
E) 9.0. | c | |
| 726271622 | 27) Most enzymes are deactivated permanently above a temperature of about
A) 25 °C.
B) 37 °F.
C) 40 °C.
D) 45 °F.
E) 50 °C. | e | |
| 726271623 | 29) In an enzyme-substrate reaction, when excess substrate is present, increasing the concentration of the enzyme will
A) increase the number of substrate molecules available.
B) inhibit the formation of products.
C) increase the decomposition rate of the enzyme-substrate complex.
D) decrease the turnover rate for the substrate.
E) increase the amount of reaction occurring. | e | |
| 726271624 | 30) Consider an enzymatic reaction in which the initial concentration of substrate is low. If the amount of enzyme is held constant, but the amount of substrate is increased, the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction will
A) increase in an exponential fashion.
B) decrease at first, then increase in a linear fashion.
C) increase at first in a linear fashion, then remain at a constant high rate.
D) stay the same.
E) be inhibited by the higher concentrations of substrate. | c | |
| 726271625 | 32) A competitive inhibitor is one that
A) binds to the enzyme at a site far from the active site.
B) binds to the active site in place of the substrate.
C) destroys the substrate.
D) binds to the allosteric site on an enzyme.
E) forms a complex with the substrate. | b | |
| 726271626 | 33) An irreversible inhibitor is one that
A) forms hydrogen bonds with the substrate.
B) binds to the enzyme with hydrophobic interactions.
C) reacts covalently with the substrate.
D) binds covalently to the enzyme active site.
E) reacts covalently with a cofactor. | d | |
| 726271627 | 34) A noncompetitive inhibitor has a structure that
A) does not resemble the substrate structure.
B) resembles the active site of the enzyme.
C) can bind to the active site of the enzyme.
D) does not interfere with the enzyme-substrate complex formation.
E) causes a change in the shape of the substrate. | a | |
| 726271628 | 35) Penicillin functions as an antibiotic by
A) poisoning bacteria with toxins.
B) raising the temperature of a bacterium.
C) bonding to metal ions in bacterial electron transport systems.
D) inhibiting the enzymes for cell wall formation in bacteria.
E) acting as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. | d | |
| 726271629 | 36) A compound that binds to the surface of an enzyme, and changes its shape so that a substrate cannot enter the active site, is called a(n)
A) irreversible inhibitor.
B) proenzyme.
C) cofactor.
D) noncompetitive inhibitor.
E) competitive inhibitor. | d | |
| 731501961 | 37) Some insecticides kill insects by inhibiting the enzyme
A) alcohol dehydrogenase.
B) acetylcholinesterase.
C) creatine kinase.
D) lipase.
E) penicillinase. | b | |
| 731501962 | 38) Penicillin-resistant bacteria can survive treatment with penicillin because they produce the enzyme
A) sucrase.
B) penicillin kinase.
C) penicillinase.
D) bacteriase.
E) phosphate lyase. | c | |
| 731501963 | 40) A noncompetitive inhibitor
A) binds at the active site of the enzyme.
B) alters the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme.
C) increases the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
D) has a structure similar to the substrate.
E) has its effect reversed by adding more substrate. | b | |
| 731501964 | 41) Pepsinogen is an example of a(n)
A) coenzyme.
B) cofactor.
C) isoenzyme.
D) allosteric enzyme.
E) zymogen. | e | |
| 731501965 | 42) When an end product from an enzyme-mediated sequence is also an inhibitor for an earlier step in the reaction sequence, the process is referred to as
A) feedback control.
B) competitive inhibition.
C) irreversible inhibition.
D) negative catalysis.
E) concentration control. | a | |
| 731501966 | 43) Allosteric enzymes can control their output of product by
A) binding the substrate at a site away from the active site.
B) binding an irreversible inhibitor at the active site.
C) binding a positive or negative regulator at a noncompetitive site.
D) changing the pH in the active site.
E) reversible inhibition using the product as the inhibitor. | c | |
| 731501967 | 44) The water-soluble B and C vitamins supply
A) essential amino acids.
B) substrates necessary for most of the reactions in the body.
C) essential fatty acids.
D) coenzymes required by some enzymes.
E) competitive inhibitors needed to regulate enzyme activity. | D | |
| 731501968 | 45) Metal ions such as Zn2+ and Fe3+ are often needed by enzymes as
A) isozymes.
B) allosteres.
C) inhibitors.
D) cofactors.
E) substrates. | D | |
| 731501969 | 46) When a cofactor is a small organic molecule, it is known as a(n)
A) isoenzyme.
B) vitamin.
C) zymogen.
D) coenzyme.
E) regulator. | D | |
| 731501970 | 48) The B vitamins are examples of
A) water-soluble vitamins.
B) essential amino acids.
C) essential minerals.
D) oil soluble vitamins.
E) vitamins that are stored in the liver. | A | |
| 731501971 | 49) Coenzymes such as water-soluble vitamins are needed in only small amounts because
A) only small amounts of enzymes are present in each cell.
B) only small amounts of substrates are available at any one time.
C) they can be eliminated in the urine.
D) each vitamin molecule can be reused many times as a cofactor.
E) they can be stored in the liver for future use. | D | |
| 731501972 | 20.2 Bimodal Questions
1) A biological catalyst is called a(n) __________.
A) lipid
B) enzyme
C) cofactor
D) coenzyme
E) substrate | B | |
| 731501973 | 2) The names of many enzymes can be recognized by the suffix __________.
A) -ate
B) -ite
C) -ose
D) -ine
E) -ase | E | |
| 731501974 | 3) An enzyme that converts a cis double bond to a trans double bond is classified as a(n) __________.
A) oxidoreductase
B) transferase
C) hydrolase
D) lyase
E) isomerase | E | |
| 731501975 | 5) Enzymes that catalyze the same reactions but have slightly different structures are called __________.
A) coenzymes
B) cofactors
C) isoenzymes
D) competitive
E) noncompetitive | C | |
| 731501976 | 6) Different forms of an enzyme that catalyze the same reaction in different tissues are called __________.
A) isomers
B) allosteres
C) coenzymes
D) prozymes
E) isoenzymes | E | |
| 731501977 | 7) The optimum pH for the activity of pepsin is about __________.
A) 2.0
B) 4.0
C) 6.5
D) 7.4
E) 7.6 | a | |
| 731501978 | 8) Another name for a zymogen is a(n) __________.
A) cofactor
B) coenzyme
C) prosthetic group
D) isozyme
E) proenzyme | e | |
| 731501979 | 9) One deficiency disease that can be traced to insufficient intake of vitamin D is __________.
A) scurvy
B) rickets
C) beriberi
D) pellagra
E) pernicious anemia | b | |
| 731501980 | 10) A diet very low in vitamin C can lead over time to the condition __________.
A) rickets
B) scurvy
C) cancer
D) carpal tunnel syndrome
E) anorexia nervosa | b | |
| 731512354 | 4) Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?
A) thymine
B) uracil
C) guanine
D) cytosine
E) deoxyribose | b | |
| 731512355 | 5) Which of the following will not be found in DNA?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) guanine
D) cytosine
E) ribose | e | |
| 731512356 | 8) The nucleotides in the backbone of DNA are held together by __________ bonds.
A) hydrogen
B) peptide
C) phosphodiester
D) glycosidic
E) ionic | c | |
| 731512357 | 9) The bonds that link the base pairs in the DNA double helix are
A) ionic bonds.
B) peptide bonds.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) hydrophobic bonds.
E) ester bonds | c | |
| 731512358 | 0) Which of the following hold two strands of DNA in an a helix?
A) ester linkages
B) disulfide linkages
C) peptide bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) glycosidic linkages | d | |
| 731512359 | 11) The base sequence of the strand of DNA complementary to the segment
5'-T-G-G-C-A-A-C-3' is:
A) 3'-T-G-G-C-A-A-C-5'
B) 3'-A-C-C-G-T-T-G-5'
C) 3'-A-C-C-G-U-U-G-5'
D) 3'-U-C-C-G-T-T-G-5'
E) 3'-A-C-G-C-T-U-G-5' | b | |
| 731512360 | 12) When DNA duplicates itself, the correct placement of the nucleotides is accomplished by
A) complementary base pairing.
B) polymerase.
C) enzyme matching.
D) base matching.
E) transcription. | a | |
| 731512361 | 13) When DNA replicates, a guanine forms a base pair with
A) uracil.
B) adenine.
C) guanine.
D) thymine.
E) cytosine. | e | |
| 731512362 | 14) Which one of the following base pairs is found in DNA?
A) adenine-thymine
B) adenine-guanine
C) cytosine-thymine
D) adenine-uracil
E) guanine-uracil | a | |
| 731512363 | 16) The two strands of the double helix of DNA are held together by
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) covalent bonds.
C) dipole-dipole interactions.
D) ionic bonds.
E) sugar-to-phosphate bonds. | a | |
| 731512364 | 18) The two new DNA molecules formed in replication
A) are complementary to the original DNA.
B) both contain only two new daughter DNA strands.
C) both contain only the parent DNA strands.
D) contain one parent and one daughter strand.
E) are identical, with one containing both parent strands, and the other containing both daughter strands. | d | |
| 731512365 | 19) What is the process in which the DNA double helix unfolds, and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand?
A) transcription
B) complementation
C) translation
D) replication
E) restriction | d | |
| 731512366 | 20) Which of the following types of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis?
A) mRNA
B) histone RNA
C) rRNA
D) tRNA
E) sRNA | a | |
| 731512367 | 21) In transcription
A) the mRNA produced is identical to the parent DNA.
B) a double helix containing one parent strand and one daughter strand is produced.
C) uracil pairs with thymine.
D) both strands of the DNA are copied.
E) the mRNA produced is complementary to one strand of the DNA. | e | |
| 731512368 | 22) Which of the following is a section of mRNA produced from the DNA template below?
3'-A-T-A-G-C-T-A-5'
A) 5'-A-T-A-G-C-T-A-3'
B) 5'-A-U-A-G-C-U-A-3'
C) 5'-U-A-U-C-G-A-U-3'
D) 5'-U-U-U-G-C-U-U-3'
E) 5'-T-A-T-C-G-A-T-3' | c | |
| 731512369 | 23) Which one of these base pairs is found in RNA?
A) guanine-cytosine
B) adenine-cytosine
C) adenine-thymine
D) adenine-guanine
E) guanine-thymine | a | |
| 731512370 | 24) In the synthesis of mRNA, an adenine in the DNA pairs with
A) uracil.
B) adenine.
C) guanine.
D) thymine.
E) cytosine. | a | |
| 731512371 | 25) A DNA template having the base sequence 3'-A-G-A-T-G-A-5' would produce a mRNA with a base sequence of
A) 5'-A-G-A-T-G-A-3'.
B) 5'-U-C-U-A-C-U-3'.
C) 5'-T-C-T-U-C-T-3'.
D) 5'-T-C-T-A-C-A-3'.
E) 5'-A-C-A-U-C-A-3'. | b | |
| 731512372 | 26) When mRNA is synthesized using the information from DNA, the process is called
A) transportation.
B) transposition.
C) transcription.
D) translation.
E) transliteration. | c | |
| 733680777 | 27) The anticodon is
A) identical to the codon on DNA.
B) complementary to the codon on DNA.
C) identical to the codon on mRNA.
D) complementary to the codon on mRNA.
E) complementary to the codon on tRNA. | d | |
| 733680778 | 28) A set of directions in the DNA base sequence for the synthesis of a protein is a(n)
A) structural gene.
B) promotor.
C) operator.
D) codon.
E) regulatory gene. | a | |
| 733680779 | 30) Some sections of a DNA molecule do not code for protein synthesis. These segments are called
A) codons.
B) anticodons.
C) Okazaki fragments.
D) introns.
E) exons. | d | |
| 733680780 | 31) Codons are base pair sequences that
A) signal the start of DNA synthesis.
B) signal the end of DNA synthesis.
C) code for amino acids.
D) signal the start of RNA synthesis.
E) code for one or more bases in mRNA. | c | |
| 733680781 | 32) The codon is found on __________, and the anticodon is found on __________.
A) mRNA; tRNA
B) tRNA; mRNA
C) rRNA; tRNA
D) ribosomes; tRNA
E) mRNA; rRNA | a | |
| 733680782 | 3) Translation is the process whereby
A) DNA is synthesized from DNA.
B) DNA is synthesized from mRNA.
C) protein is synthesized from DNA.
D) protein is synthesized from mRNA.
E) mRNA is synthesized from DNA. | d | |
| 733680783 | 35) A tRNA is activated when it
A) attaches to mRNA.
B) attaches to its specific amino acid.
C) attaches to the ribosome.
D) leaves the ribosome.
E) releases its specific amino acid. | b | |
| 733680784 | 36) During protein synthesis, the codon for an amino acid is found on
A) DNA.
B) rRNA.
C) tRNA.
D) mRNA.
E) sRNA. | d | |
| 733680785 | 37) The anticodon of U-A-G is
A) A-T-C.
B) U-A-G.
C) A-A-C.
D) A-U-C.
E) G-A-U. | d | |
| 733680786 | 38) Mutations are the result of
A) alterations in the phosphate of the DNA backbone.
B) exposure to water in utero.
C) physical trauma in the mother's childhood.
D) alterations in the sugar component of the DNA backbone.
E) alterations in the DNA base sequence. | e | |
| 733680787 | 39) The result of a defective enzyme caused by a mutation in the DNA nucleotide sequence is
A) a genetic disease.
B) AIDS.
C) HIV.
D) recombinant DNA.
E) translocation. | a | |
| 733680788 | 40) When a mutation occurs by elimination of one base in a DNA sequence, this mutation is called a
A) frameshift mutation.
B) retrovirus insertion.
C) substitution mutation.
D) translocation mutation.
E) viral mutation. | a | |
| 733680789 | 41) In the study of genetics, the abbreviation PCR refers to
A) purine chain repression.
B) pyrimidine complement restriction.
C) purine coded ribose.
D) protein combination and replication.
E) polymerase chain reaction. | e | |
| 733680790 | 42) Recombinant DNA technology requires the use of bacterial
A) plasmids.
B) mitochondria.
C) endoplasmic reticulum.
D) ribosomes.
E) cell walls. | A | |
| 733680791 | 43) One therapeutic product now available due to recombinant DNA technology is
A) measles vaccine.
B) penicillin.
C) human growth hormone.
D) sulfamethoxazole.
E) tamoxifen. | C | |
| 733680792 | 44) DNA fingerprinting uses __________ to produce DNA fragments that can be separated and screened for the presence of genetic diseases.
A) extracellular DNA
B) restriction enzymes
C) bacterial plasmids
D) anticodons
E) codons | B | |
| 733680793 | 45) The purpose of the human genome project was to
A) identify genes responsible for noninheritable diseases.
B) determine how to clone human DNA.
C) identify substrates for the polymerase chain reaction.
D) learn how to clone bacterial DNA.
E) map the locations of all the genes in human DNA. | E | |
| 733680794 | 46) Which of the following is used in the preparation of recombinant DNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA polymerase
C) repressor protein
D) restriction enzyme
E) enzyme induction | D | |
| 733680795 | 7) The insertion of new DNA into the plasmid DNA of a bacterium produces
A) viral DNA.
B) DNA fingerprints.
C) recombinant DNA.
D) ribosomes.
E) restriction enzymes. | C | |
| 733680796 | 48) The polymerase chain reaction is used in
A) preparing recombinant DNA.
B) transcription.
C) DNA fingerprinting.
D) translation.
E) replication. | C | |
| 733680797 | 49) A restriction enzyme functions to
A) prevent the DNA from leaving the nucleus.
B) limit the number of replications a DNA molecule can achieve.
C) cut a large DNA double helix into smaller fragments.
D) stop the elongation step of protein synthesis.
E) eliminate a virus from a cell. | C | |
| 733680798 | 50) Small living particles, with 3 to 200 genes, that cannot replicate without a host cell are called
A) recombinant DNAs.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) tumors.
E) plasmids. | B | |
| 733680799 | 51) A virus that contains RNA as its genetic material is a
A) genetically engineered virus.
B) bacteria.
C) recombinant DNA.
D) retrovirus.
E) vaccine. | D | |
| 733680800 | 52) Protease inhibitors, which are effective anti-HIV drugs,
A) are nucleoside analogs.
B) prevent reverse transcription.
C) prevent synthesis of viral proteins.
D) prevent mRNA synthesis.
E) prevent activation of tRNA. | C | |
