All 110 Blood Bank Quiz questions
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| 542415701 | One bag of red blood cells will increase the hemoglobin by what amount | 1 gm/dL | 0 | |
| 542415702 | Which of the following components has ALL of the coagulation factors | Fresh frozen plasma | 1 | |
| 542415703 | One bag of random donor platelets will increase the platelet count by how much | 5000 to 10,000/uL | 2 | |
| 542415704 | Which component must be stored with constant shaking | Platelets | 3 | |
| 542415705 | If a bag of leukoreduced red blood cells is washed, how long is this product good | 24 hours from the start of the washing procedure. | 4 | |
| 542415706 | Cryoprecipitate Antihemophilic Factor that is harvested from fresh frozen plasma can be used to treat which coagulation factor deficiencies | Factor I Factor VIII Factor XIII | 5 | |
| 542415707 | If there is no blood that is tested CMV negative, which of the following is considered CMV "safe" | Leukoreduced components | 6 | |
| 542415708 | If a patient receives a bag of single donor platelets and his platelet count does not increase (In fact, it sometimes decreases.), we say he may be refractory to platelets. How do we attempt to overcome this refractoriness | Transfuse HLA matched platelets | 7 | |
| 542415709 | All blood that is drawn in CPD or CP2D can have its storage time extended by adding an additive solution (also called Adsol and Adenine Solution). When this is added within 72 hours of the unit's being drawn, what will be the new expiration date | 42 days and no more. | 8 | |
| 542415710 | If a unit of whole blood is drawn in CPDA-1, how long can it be stored and used | 35 days | 9 | |
| 542415711 | What is the minimum hemoglobin for allogeneic blood donations | 12.5 g/dL | 10 | |
| 542415712 | How much anticoagulant/preservative must be in a standard bag to draw 450 mLs of whole blood | 63 mL | 11 | |
| 542415713 | What is the minimum and maximum milliliters of blood that can be drawn in a standard bag | 405 to 495 mLs | 12 | |
| 542415714 | What is the minimum weight to be an allogeneic blood donor | 110 pounds | 13 | |
| 542415715 | What is the minimum hemoglobin and hematocrit for autologous donations | 11 gm/dL and 33% | 14 | |
| 542415716 | What is the pulse range for an allogeneic blood donor | 50 to 100 beats per minute | 15 | |
| 542415717 | What is the systolic blood pressure limits for an allogeneic donor | Less than or equal to 180 | 16 | |
| 542415718 | What is the upper age limit at which a person can have had hepatitis and still be an allogeneic blood donor | 10 years of age | 17 | |
| 542415719 | If a donor is hooked to a machine and only one component is harvested from him, he is said to be donating by what technique | Apheresis | 18 | |
| 542415720 | A person who donates blood with the intent that he will receive his own blood during a future surgery is called what kind of donor | Autologous | 19 | |
| 542415721 | If the antibody screen is positive after the addition of AHG and all crossmatched units are compatible after AHG, what is a probable cause | An alloantibody is present | 20 | |
| 542415722 | When a clinically significant alloantibody is identified in the patient's serum, what is done prior to transfusing the unit | Confirm that the donor cells are negative for the antigen specific for the patient's antibody by testing the donor cells with commercial antisera. Perform a crossmatch using AHG | 21 | |
| 542415723 | If a patient's sample is positive with all cells (screens, auto, and crossmatches) after 37oC incubation, but negative after the addition of AHG, what could be the cause | Rouleaux | 22 | |
| 542415724 | If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but all the crossmatched units are incompatible at all phases, what may be the cause | The patient was incorrectly ABO typed. | 23 | |
| 542415725 | If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but one of the crossmatched units is incompatible after adding AHG, what may be the cause | The patient may have an alloantibody to a low frequency antigen present on that one donor's cells | 24 | |
| 542415726 | If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but one of the crossmatched units is incompatible at immediate spin, what may be the cause | The patient's serum may have anti-M | 25 | |
| 542415727 | If a patient's serum sample is positive with all cells (screens, auto and donor cells) after the addition of AHG, what test will be your clue that there is something in the serum reacting with something in the entire test system | The direct antiglobulin test on the patient's cells | 26 | |
| 542415728 | If a patient's serum reacts with the diluent in the commercial cells, what can be done to resolve the problem | Wash the commercial cells to remove the diluent and retest Perform the antibody screen with the cells from another manufacturer Suspend the patient's cells in the commercial diluent that accompanies each panel and retest. If this is positive, it proves that the diluent is the problem. | 27 | |
| 542415729 | What is the protocol for transfusing neonates | They are given O negative cells of their own Rh type | 28 | |
| 542415730 | When a clinically insignificant alloantibody is identified in the patient's serum, what is done prior to transfusing the unit | Perform a crossmatch using AHG | 29 | |
| 542415731 | What is the cause of febrile transfusion reactions | Leukoctye antibodies present in the patient's plasma that react with leukocytes in the blood | 30 | |
| 542415732 | Which of the following antibodies are implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions | Anti-A1, anti-P1, anti-Jk(a) | 31 | |
| 542415733 | Urticarial transfusion reactions have no definitive cause, but it is thought IgE is involved. What are the symptoms | pruritus hives erythema | 32 | |
| 542415734 | TRALI and TACO have similar symptoms, but they differ by which of the following | TACO patients suffer from hypervolemia and TRALI patients do not. | 33 | |
| 542415735 | Which of the following is an iatrogenic transfusion reaction(If you want to get technical, I guess you could say they are all iatrogenic, but your text does focus on one.) | Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload | 34 | |
| 542415736 | What is the first procedure to be done in the laboratory investigation of a transfusion reaction | Clerical check on all the paper work. | 35 | |
| 542415737 | If the Direct antiglobulin test is positive due to IgG, how will this look microscopically and what test must be done to identify the IgG antibody on the cells | It will look mixed field microscopically and the IgG antibody must be eluted from the cells. Test this eluate against a panel to identify the antibody. | 36 | |
| 542415738 | If a patient has febrile transfusion reactions, how are future transfusions handled | Leukoreduce the cellular products to be infused. | 37 | |
| 542415739 | What must be done to prevent graft-versus-host disease | Irradiate the cellular products to be infused. | 38 | |
| 542415740 | If a patient has anaphylactic transfusion reactions, how are future transfusions handled | Wash the cellular products to be infused. | 39 | |
| 542415741 | For both the DAT and the IAT the cell button should be washed at least three times prior to adding AHG. Why | To remove globulins from the serum/plasma surrounding the cells | 40 | |
| 542415742 | The amount of antigen present on a cell influences the first stage of agglutination. Which of the following cells has the most antigen | A cell that is homozygous for the antigen | 41 | |
| 542415743 | What is antihuman globulin | An IgG antibody against human globulin | 42 | |
| 542415744 | What is the ABO type of check cells | O | 43 | |
| 542415745 | What is the first stage of agglutination called | Sensitization | 44 | |
| 542415746 | What is the purpose of the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) | To detect in vivo sensitized red blood cells | 45 | |
| 542415747 | When performing a DAT, a control consisting of 6% albumin is run concurrently. What is the result of the control | The control should always be negative. | 46 | |
| 542415748 | Which immunoglobulin class is the blood banker most interested in | IgG | 47 | |
| 542415749 | Which of the following clinical applications uses the DAT | Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions (HTR) | 48 | |
| 542415750 | If a patient has anti-Fy(a) in his serum, he must receive red blood cells that are negative for the Fy(a) antigen. What percent of the Caucasian population is negative for the Fy(a) antigen | 35% | 49 | |
| 542415751 | If a person has the Le, se and H genes, what substance(s) are in his body fluids | Only Le(a) blood group substance | 50 | |
| 542415752 | Select the cell below that should be used for the positive control when testing commercially prepared anti-Fy(a) | Fy(a+b+) | 51 | |
| 542415753 | What do the following antigens have in common Js(b), U, I, Yt(a) | All are high frequency antigens | 52 | |
| 542415754 | What do the following antibodies have in common Anti-N, anti-P1, anti-Le(a) | All are considered clinically insignificant All are usually IgM | 53 | |
| 542415755 | What do the following antigens have in common Fy(a), M, N, S | All are destroyed when treated with an enzyme | 54 | |
| 542415756 | What do the following antigens have in common k, Kp(b), Js(b) | All are antigens in the Kell Blood Group System All are high frequency antigens. All are destroyed when treated with a thiol-reducing agent. | 55 | |
| 542415757 | Which of the following antibodies reacts best in an acidic environment | Anti-M | 56 | |
| 542415758 | Which of the following blood group systems produces antibodies that do not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn | Lewis | 57 | |
| 542415759 | Which of the following antibodies reacts with the same strength through all dilutions of the serum until it becomes negative | Anti-Rg | 58 | |
| 542415760 | Which of the following lectins will discern group A1 cells from A2 cells | Dolichos biflorus | 59 | |
| 542415761 | Upon initial typing, the cells from a person with the Bombay phenotype will appear to be which ABO type | Group O | 60 | |
| 542415762 | What percent cell suspension is used when testing cells for ABO antigens | 4% | 61 | |
| 542415763 | The commercially prepared anti-A and anti-B are | Monoclonal antibodies IgM antibodies Prepared with a colored dye added | 62 | |
| 542415764 | If a person has the Se gene, the A gene and the B gene, what blood group substances will be found in his body fluids | D. A, B and H blood group substance. | 63 | |
| 542415765 | If both the mom and the dad are Group O, what will be the ABO type of their offspring | All of the offspring will be Group O. | 64 | |
| 542415766 | If a person has only H blood group substance, what antigens will be found on his red cells | H antigens only | 65 | |
| 542415767 | If a patient is blood type A, which of the following antibodies are in his serum/plasma | Anti-B | 66 | |
| 542415768 | Which of the following carbohydrates are needed to produce blood type B | Fucose and Galactose | 67 | |
| 542415769 | If a patient is blood type O, which of the following antigens are on his cells | H antigen only | 68 | |
| 542415770 | False positive results and false negative results can be obtained by sloppy technique. Which of the following causes a false positive result | Bacterial contamination of the reagent | 69 | |
| 542415771 | If a cell is positive for the antigens D, C, E, c and e, what is the most probable Rh phenotype | R1R2 | 70 | |
| 542415772 | If a patient has a weakly expressed D antigen, how is it detected | By the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) | 71 | |
| 542415773 | What antibodies in the Rh system can be made by a person whose Rh phenotype is R1R1 | Anti-c and anti-E | 72 | |
| 542415774 | Anti-LW is negative (does not react) with which of the following cells | Rhnull cells | 73 | |
| 542415775 | If a person's most probable Rh phenotype is R1R1, what is that in Fisher-Race nomenclature and in Rosenfield | CDe/CDe Rh: 1, 2, -3, -4, 5 | 74 | |
| 542415776 | What percent of the caucasian population is negative for the D antigen | 15% | 75 | |
| 542415777 | If a dad is R1R2 and the mom is rr, what percent of the offspring will be positive for the D antigen | 100% | 76 | |
| 542415778 | Which of the following Rh typing reagents must ALWAYS be used with a control | High protein anti-D | 77 | |
| 542415779 | If a cell is positive for the c and e antigens and negative for the D, C and E antigens, what is the most probable Rh phenotype | rr | 78 | |
| 542415780 | A person can make an alloantibody as a result of | exposure to a foreign antigen through a blood transfusion exposure to a foreign antigen through pregnancy exposure to a foreign antigen in the environment | 79 | |
| 542415781 | Choose the correct statement below regarding screening cells and panel cells. | Screening cells include 3 separate vials and a panel includes 8-20 vials. | 80 | |
| 542415782 | Commercially prepared red blood cells for the purpose of detecting unexpected antibodies in serum/plasma are | typed for 18 common antigens | 81 | |
| 542415783 | If the antibody screen is positive after the addition of AHG and the autocontrol is negative after the addition of AHG, this means that | an alloantibody is present. | 82 | |
| 542415784 | The procedure used to detect and identify clinically significant antibodies is the | indirect antiglobulin test | 83 | |
| 542415785 | To be sure that a tech is 95% confident when identifying an antibody, how many cells, at the very least, must be positive for the antigen and yield a positive result and how many cells must be negative for the antigen and yield a negative result | 3 positive and 3 negative | 84 | |
| 542415786 | What is the characteristic of a clinically significant antibody | It is IgG. | 85 | |
| 542415787 | Which is a low frequency antigen | Js(a) | 86 | |
| 542415788 | Which of the following antigens are destroyed by enzymes such as ficin or bromelin | Fy(a), Fy(b), S | 87 | |
| 542415789 | Which of the following phenotypes is homozygous for the Fy(a) antigen | Fy(a+b-) | 88 | |
| 542415790 | What is the minimal information that must be on a properly labeled tube of blood that will be used for compatibility testing | Patient's full name, unique identification number and date drawn | 89 | |
| 542415791 | If a patient is receiving saline by IV, where should the phlebotomist stick the patient | Draw the blood below the IV line | 90 | |
| 542415792 | Which of the following methods can be used to overcome a delay in clot formation when a patient has a prolonged clotting time | Add liquid thrombin to the tube of blood Add dry thrombin to the tube of blood Add glass beads to the tube of blood | 91 | |
| 542415793 | Why is it important to check for previous records | To know if a clinically significant antibody was identified | 92 | |
| 542415794 | Full compatibility testing consists of | ABO (cells and serum) and Rh typing of the sample and ABO cell typing of the donor An antibody screen at 37oC and AHG on the patient's serum/plasma A major crossmatch consisting of mixing patient's serum with donor cells | 93 | |
| 542415795 | When is it permissible to do only an immediate spin crossmatch | When there is no history of a clinically significant antibody and no clinically significant antibody is detected in the current sample. | 94 | |
| 542415796 | If there is no time to determine a patient's ABO and Rh type because he is profusely bleeding, what ABO/Rh type should be transfused | Group O, Rh negative | 95 | |
| 542415797 | After a sample is drawn from the patient, how long can the lab continue to crossmatch from | 72 hours | 96 | |
| 542415798 | How long must the sample be stored following a transfusion of the patient | Seven days after the last transfusion | 97 | |
| 542415799 | At what temperature should the patient's sample and the segment from the bag of blood be stored | 1 to 6 degrees Celsius | 98 | |
| 542415800 | We find ABO hemolytic disease most often in babies born to moms who are which ABO type | Group O | 99 | |
| 542415801 | Anti-Le(a) is usually IgM, but sometimes it can be IgG; however it will not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. Why | The cells of newborns are Le(a-b-) | 100 | |
| 542415802 | What portion of the IgG molecule functions to move the molecule across the placenta | Fc portion | 101 | |
| 542415803 | How are the sensitized cells of the unborn destroyed in vivo | The baby's macrophages remove the sensitized cells which are destroyed in his spleen. | 102 | |
| 542415804 | What is considered a significant difference in the titer of two samples when they are being compared | More than a two tube difference | 103 | |
| 542415805 | ABO and Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn each have unique distinguishing characteristics. Which of the following red cell shapes is unique to ABO HDN | Spherocytosis | 104 | |
| 542415806 | Which of the following are essential criteria when transfusing the unborn child | The red blood cells must be irradiated The red blood cells must be as fresh as possible (Usually no more than 5 days old) The cells must be negative for hemoglobin S. | 105 | |
| 542415807 | If the qualitative test for a feto-maternal bleed is negative, how many vials of Rh Immune Globulin must be injected into the mom | One because she is a candidate; that's why the test was done. | 106 | |
| 542415808 | A mom is group O positive and has anti-Fy(a), anti-K and anti-E. The baby is group A neg and has a positive DAT. The eluate from the baby's cells shows anti-Fy(a). Knowing that any blood transfused to this newborn must be compatible with the mom's serum, select the correct blood type to transfuse this infant. | Group O, Rh negative and negative for E, K and Fy(a) antigens | 107 | |
| 542415809 | If a Group A negative mom received antenatal Rh Immune Globulin at 28 weeks gestation, what is the specificity of the antibody that may be identified in her serum at delivery? | Anti-D | 108 | |
| 542415810 | Cells from which of the following tubes may give a false positive DAT due to C3 sensitizing the cells in vitro? | Clotted—red stoppered | 109 |
