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The question is:
Although New England and the Chesapeake region were both settled largely by people of English origin, by 1700 the regions had evolved into two distinct societies. Why did this difference in development occur?
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Any help on this would be greatly appreciated! Please, please, please! This is the difference of me passing or failing this quarter!
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I totally had a question just like that last year about this time, but i'm too lazy to check your profile. Logging, Fur, Fishing, Religion, Tobacco, Gov forms, later immigrants... hit all those topics at least.
http://www.hippocampus.org/?select-textbook=43 <<
well, there are natural obstacles and the people who migrated to the New World had a different religious background. They also migrated there at different times too. The Natural obstacles could be what they can and cant grow, mountains, availability of rivers, etc.
Yea, I hope that helps.
capitalization? who the heck came up with this horrible rule?!
[IMG]http://i40.photobucket.com/albums/e201/Ohnn/ID.jpg[/IMG]
[=DarkOrange][=2]my ap equilavent courses:
ib art; ib math sl; ib english
Thanks! You guys are amazing.
Anything else? Please?
Well, alot of it is land and town set up. Both had different social societies based on the way the towns could be set up and the way slaves could be used, not to mention how religion affected these things.
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"I refuse to prove that I exist," says God, "for proof denies faith, and without faith I am nothing."
"But," say Man, "the Babel fish is a dead giveaway, isn't it? It could not have evolved by chance. It