| CourseNotes

Medical Billing and Coding Chapter 10 Flashcards

16512547844	Urea	the major waste product of protein metabolism	0
16512547845	Creatinine	waste product of muscle metabolism	1
16512547846	Kidneys	constantly filter the blood to remove waste products and excess water	2
16512547847	2 quarts	the kidneys filter around 200 quarts of blood to produce ______ of urine	3
16512547848	Renal	pertaining to the kidney	4
16512547849	Kidneys	Located in the retroperitoneal space	5
16512547850	renal cortex	outer region of the kidney	6
16512547851	cortex	outer region of an organ	7
16512547852	Medulla	inner region of the kidney	8
16512547853	Nephrons	microscopic functional units of each kidney	9
16512547854	reabsorption	Return to the blood of some of the substances that were removed during filtration	10
16512547855	glomerulus	cluster of capillaries	11
16512547856	renal artery	Where blood enters the kidney and flows into the nephrons	12
16512547857	renal vein	Where filtered blood leaves the kidney and returns to the bloodstream	13
16512547858	renal pelvis	Where newly formed urine from the nephrons collects before it flows into the ureters	14
16512547859	Ureters	two narrow tubes which transport urine from the kidney to the bladder	15
16512547860	Peristalsis	Series of wave-like contractions	16
16512547861	urinary bladder	Reservoir for urine before it is excreted from the body	17
16512547862	1 pint	The average adult body stores more than ___ of urine	18
16512547863	rugae	Folds in the bladder that allow it to expand when full and contract when empty	19
16512547864	Urethra	tube extending from the bladder to the exterior of the body	20
16512547865	urethral meatus	external opening of the urethra	21
16512547866	Meatus	External opening of a canal	22
16512547867	female urethra	located between the clitoris and the opening of the vagina and transports only urine	23
16512547868	male urethra	Located at the tip of the penis and transports urine and semen	24
16512547869	Urologist	Physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders and diseases of the urinary system of females and the genitourinary system of males	25
16512547870	azotemia	elevation of the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) caused by a lack of blood flow to each kidney	26
16513468234	uremia	a toxic condition resulting from renal failure in which kidney function is compromised and urea and other waste is retained in the blood	27
16513468235	-emia	Blood condition	28
16513468236	acute renal failure (ARF)	sudden onset of kidney failure that may be caused by the kidneys not receiving enough blood to filter and is characterized by uremia.	29
16513468237	Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)	progressive, irreversible loss of kidney function	30
16513468238	end-stage renal disease (ESRD)	The final stage of chronic kidney disease that is fatal unless the functions of the failed kidneys are successfully replaced by dialysis or with a successful kidney transplant.	31
16513468239	nephrotic syndrome	group of conditions in which excessive amounts of protein are lost through the urine	32
16513468240	edema	excessive accumulation of fluid in cells and tissues	33
16513468241	hyperproteinuria	presence of abnormally high concentration of protein in the urine	34
16513468242	hypoproteinemia	the presence of abnormally low concentrations of protein in the blood	35
16513468243	Minimal change disease	nephrons look normal under a regular microscope, is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.	36
16513468244	hydronephrosis	the dilation (swelling) of one or both kidneys	37
16513468245	nephritis	inflammation of the kidney	38
16513468246	glomerulonephritis	a type of nephritis caused by inflammation of the glomeruli that causes red blood cells and proteins to leak into the urine	39
16513468247	nephroptosis (floating kidney)	The prolapse, or dropping down, of a kidney into the pelvic area when the patient stands.	40
16513468248	nephropyosis (pyonephrosis)	suppuration of the kidney	41
16513468249	suppuration	the formation or discharge of pus	42
16513468250	polycystic kidney disease (PKD)	inherited disease in which sacs of fluid called cysts develop in the kidneys	43
16513468251	renal colic	an acute pain in the kidney area that is caused by blockage during the passing of a kidney stone	44
16513468252	Wilms tumor	a rare type of malignant tumor of the kidney that occurs in young children	45
16513468253	stone (calculus)	abnormal mineral deposit that has formed within the body and is named for the organ or tissue where it is located	46
16513468254	nephrolithiasis	presence of stones in the kidney	47
16513468255	Nephrolith (kidney stone)	Stone found in the kidney	48
16513468256	Ureterolith	a stone located anywhere along the ureter	49
16513468257	Cystolith	a stone located within the urinary bladder	50
16513468258	hydroureter	the distention (swelling) of the ureter with urine that cannot flow because the ureter is blocked	51
16513468259	ureterectasis	the distention (swelling) of a ureter due to hydroureter or congenital abnormalities	52
16513468260	ureterorrhagia	the discharge of blood from the ureter	53
16513468261	cystalgia	pain in the bladder	54
16513468262	cystocele	a hernia of the bladder through the vaginal wall	55
16513468263	interstitial cystitis	a chronic inflammation within the walls of the bladder	56
16513468264	vesicoureteral reflux	backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureters	57
16513468265	vesic/o	Bladder	58
16513468266	vesicovaginal fistula	abnormal opening between the bladder and vagina that allows constant involuntary flow of urine from the bladder into the vagina	59
16513468267	neurogenic bladder	a urinary problem caused by interference with the normal nerve pathways associated with urination	60
16513468268	neuropathy	any disease or damage of the nerves	61
16513468269	benign prostatic hyperplasia (enlarged prostate)	enlargement of the prostate gland	62
16513468270	Hyperplasia	increase in cell number typically associated with tumor growth	63
16513468271	prostatism	a disorder resulting from the compression or obstruction of the urethra due to benign prostatic hyperplasia	64
16513468272	prostatitis	Group of disorders characterized by the inflammation of the prostate gland	65
16513468273	urethrorrhagia	bleeding from the urethra	66
16513468274	urethrorrhea	abnormal discharge from the urethra; associated with STDs	67
16513468275	urethrostenosis	narrowing of the urethra; occurs almost exclusively in men and is caused by scarring from infection or injury	68
16513468276	epispadias	a congenital abnormality of the urethral opening where in the male, the urethral opening is located on the upper surface of the penis, and in the female the urethral opening is in the region of the clitoris	69
16513468277	hypospadias	congenital abnormality in which the male urethral opening is on the undersurface of the penis, instead of at its tip and the female urethra opens into the vagina	70
16513468278	cystitis	inflammation of the bladder	71
16513468279	pyelonephritis	inflammation of the renal pelvis and the kidney	72
16513468280	urethritis	inflammation of the urethra	73
16513468281	anuria	absence of urine formation by the kidneys	74
16513468282	diuresis	increased output of urine	75
16513468283	dysuria	difficult or painful urination	76
16513468284	enuresis	involuntary discharge of urine	77
16513468285	nocturnal enuresis	urinary incontinence during sleep	78
16513468286	nocturia	excessive urination at night	79
16513468287	oliguria	scanty production of urine	80
16513468288	polyuria	excessive urination	81
16513468289	urinary hesitancy	difficulty in starting a urinary stream	82
16513468290	urinary retention	inability to empty the bladder	83
16513468291	incontinence	Inability to control the excretion of urine, fever, or both	84
16513468292	urinary incontinence	the inability to control the voiding of urine	85
16513468293	overflow incontinence	continuous leaking from the bladder either because it is full or because it does not empty completely	86
16513468294	stress incontinence	the inability to control the voiding of urine under physical stress such as running, sneezing, laughing, or coughing	87
16513468295	overactive bladder (OAB)	aka urge incontinence, occurs when the muscles of the bladder contract involuntarily even though the bladder is not actually full enough to indicate the need to urinate	88
16513468296	urinalysis	the examination of urine to determine the presence of abnormal elements	89
16513468297	bladder ultrasound	the use of a handheld ultrasound transducer to measure the amount of urine remaining in the bladder after urination	90
16513468298	300-400 mL	A normal bladder holds between ___ of urine	91
16513468299	urinary catheterization	insertion of a tube into the bladder to procure a sterile specimen for diagnostic purposes; drain urine from bladder when the patient is unable to urinate for other reasons	92
16513468300	cystoscopy	visual examination of the urinary bladder	93
16513468301	voiding cystourethrography	a diagnostic procedure in which a fluoroscope is used to examine the flow of urine from the bladder and through the urethra	94
16513468302	Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)	blood test to check how well the kidneys are functioning at filtering blood	95
16513468303	cystography	a radiographic examination of the bladder after instillation of a contrast medium via a urethral catheter	96
16513468304	intravenous pyelography	a radiographic study of the kidneys and ureters	97
16513468305	intravenous pyelogram	a radiographic study of the kidneys and ureters used to diagnose changes in the urinary tract	98
16513468306	KUB (kidneys, ureters, bladder)	a radiographic study without the use of a contrast medium, used to detect bowel obstructions and nephroliths	99
16513468307	retrograde urography	a radiograph of the urinary system taken after dye has been placed in the urethra through a sterile catheter and caused to flow upward (backward) through the urinary tract	100
16513468308	retrograde	moving backward	101
16513468309	digital rectal examination	finger palpation through the anal canal and rectum to examine the prostate gland	102
16513468310	Digital (as in digital rectal examination)	Using a finger	103
16513468311	prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test	used to screen for prostate cancer; measures the amount of prostate-specific antigen that is present in a blood specimen	104
16513468312	Diuretics	medications administered to increase urine secretion in order to rid the body of excess water and salt	105
16513468313	Sodium, potassium, protein, and phosphorous	Dietary considerations for people with kidney disease	106
16513468314	dialysis	a procedure to remove waste products from the blood of patients whose kidneys no longer function	107
16513468315	Dia-	through or complete	108
16513468316	hemodialysis	the process by which waste products are filtered directly from the patient's blood; most common type of dialysis	109
16513468317	shunt	artificial passage that allows the blood to flow between the body and the hemodialysis unit	110
16513468318	dialysate	Solution that contains water and electrolytes that passes through the artificial kidney to remove excess fluids and wastes from the blood	111
16513468319	Electrolytes	the salts that conduct electricity and are found in the body fluid, tissue, and blood	112
16513468320	peritoneal dialysis	the lining of the peritoneal cavity acts as the filter to remove waste from the blood; can be done at home; less effective than hemodialysis	113
16513468321	continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)	provides ongoing dialysis as the patient goes about his or her daily activities	114
16513468322	continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)	uses a machine to cycle the dialysate solution during the night while the patient sleeps	115
16513468323	nephrolysis	the surgical freeing of a kidney from adhesions	116
16513468324	nephropexy	surgical fixation of a floating kidney	117
16513468325	nephrostomy	the placement of a catheter to maintain an opening from the pelvis of one or both kidneys to the exterior of the body	118
16513468326	pyelotomy	a surgical incision into the renal pelvis	119
16513468327	renal transplantation	the grafting of a donor kidney, from either a living or nonliving donor, into the body to replace the recipient's failed kidneys	120
16513468328	2 days - 3 weeks	Period it takes most small nephroliths to pass out of the urinary tract naturally	121
16513468329	extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)	High-energy ultrasonic waves traveling through water or gel are used to break the stone into fragments which are then excreted in the urine	122
16513468330	extracorporeal	Situated or occurring outside the body	123
16513468331	percutaneous nephrolithotomy	the surgical removal of a nephrolith through a small incision in the back	124
16513468332	percutaneous	performed through the skin	125
16513468333	ureterectomy	the surgical removal of a ureter	126
16513468421	ureterorrhaphy	the surgical suturing of a ureter	127
16513468422	ureteroscopy	treatment for a nephrolith lodged in the ureter	128
16513468423	cystectomy	the surgical removal of all or part of the urinary bladder	129
16513468424	ileal conduit (urinary ileostomy)	use of a small piece of intestine to convey urine to the ureters and to a stoma in the abdomen	130
16513468425	cystopexy	the surgical fixation of the bladder to the abdominal wall	131
16513468426	cystorrhaphy	the surgical suturing of a wound or defect in the bladder	132
16513468427	lithotomy	Physical examination position for procedures involving the pelvis and lower abdomen; surgical incision for the removal of a stone from the bladder	133
16513468428	urinary catheterization	passage of a catheter into the urinary bladder to withdraw urine for diagnostic purposes, to allow urine to drain freely, or to place a fluid such as a chemotherapy solution into the bladder	134
16513468429	indwelling catheter	remains inside the body for a prolonged time based on need based on need	135
16513468430	urethral catheterization	performed by inserting a plastic tube called a catheter through the urethra and into the bladder	136
16513468431	suprapubic catheterization	the placement of a catheter into the bladder through a small incision made through the abdominal wall just above the pubic bone	137
16513468432	Foley catheter	the most common type of indwelling catheter; flexible tube with a balloon filled with sterile water at the end to hold it in place in the bladder	138
16513468433	intermittent catheter	inserted as needed several times a day to drain urine from the bladder	139
16513468434	meatotomy	a surgical incision made in the urinary meatus to enlarge the opening	140
16513468435	urethroplasty	the surgical repair of damage or a defect in the walls of the urethra	141
16513468436	urethrotomy	a surgical incision into the urethra for relief of a stricture	142
16513468437	ablation	the removal of a body part or the destruction of its function	143
16513468438	electrocautery	Use of high-frequency electrical current to destroy tissue	144
16513468439	prostatectomy	surgical removal of all or part of the prostate gland	145
16513468440	radical prostatectomy	the surgical removal of the entire prostate gland	146
16513468441	transurethral prostatectomy (TURP)	the removal of excess tissue from an enlarged prostate gland with the use of a resectoscope	147
16513468442	retrograde ejaculation	the backward expulsion of semen into the bladder rather than out of the urethral opening	148
16513468443	ARF	acute renal failure	149
16513468444	BPH	benign prostatic hypertrophy	150
16513468445	cath	catheterization	151
16513468446	CKD	chronic kidney disease	152
16513468447	cysto	cystoscopy	153
16513468448	DRE	digital rectal examination	154
16513468449	ESRD	end-stage renal disease	155
16513468450	ESWL	extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy	156
16513468451	PKD	polycystic kidney disease	157
16513468452	TURP	transurethral resection of the prostate	158
16513468453	UTI	urinary tract infection	159
16513468454	Kegel exercises	a series of pelvic muscle exercises used to strengthen the muscles of the pelvic floor to control urinary stress incontinence	160
16513468455	Bladder retraining	behavioral therapy in which the patient learns to urinate on a schedule, with increasingly longer time intervals as the bladder increases its capacity	161

Powered by Quizlet.com

Medical Billing Practice Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

13892919798	what is the correct matching word part for corne/o	cornea	0
13892926889	what is the surgical removal of the mastoid cells?	mastoidectomy	1
13892952258	what is the surgical repair of the pinna of the ear	otoplasty	2
13892972085	what is the correct matching word part for phac/o	lens	3
13892983688	what is the correct matching word part for chrom/o	color	4
13892995374	What is the surgical removal of the tympanic membrane	myringectomy	5
13893003954	what is the correct matching word part for retin/o	retina	6
13893028616	what is the correct matching word part for opt/o	eyes	7
13893039467	what is the correct matching word part for mono/o	one	8
13893052167	what is the correct matching word part for -opia	vision	9
13893063289	what is the correct matching word part for scler/o	white of the eye	10
13893070389	what is the correct matching word part for core/o	pupil	11
13893077550	what is the surgical removal of the stapes	stapedectomy	12
13893088044	what is the correct matching word part for ir/o	iris	13
13893114050	what is the surgical incision of the eardrum to create a placement of tympanostomy tubes is	myringotomy	14
13893202061	what is the correct matching word part for pulm/o	pertaining to lungs	15
13893208329	what is the correct matching word part for pleur/o	pleura, side of the body	16
13893213843	what is the correct matching word part for bronchi/o	bronchial tubes	17
13893223652	which is the correct matching word for alveol/o	air sac	18
13893228174	what is the correct matching word part for -pnea	breathing	19
13893233084	what is the correct matching word part for trachea/o	trachea	20
13893240365	what is the correct matching word part for phon/o	sound or voice	21
13893244786	what is the correct matching word part for cyan/o	blue	22
13893250329	what is the correct matching word part for -ecstasis/o	enlargement	23
13893255869	what is the correct matching word part for phren/o	diaphragm	24
13899516076	which is the correct matching word part for coron/o	coronary	25
13899522219	which is the correct matching word part for phleb/o	vein	26
13899527470	which is the correct matching word part for hemat/o	blood	27
13899532227	which is the correct matching word part for angi/o	relating to blood or lymph vessels	28
13899535610	which is the correct matching word part for -emia	blood condition	29
13899543857	which is the correct matching word part for leuk/o	white	30
13899546695	which is the correct matching word part for aort/o	aorta	31
13899546696	which is the correct matching word part for ather/o	plaque or fatty substance	32
13899553807	which is the correct matching word part for cardi/o	heart	33
13899556303	which is the correct matching word part for ech/o	sound	34
13899582801	A physician performed a bilateral laminectomy on a patient in an ambulatory surgical center. Which of the following place of service codes should be used on the CMS 1500?	24	35
13899596518	Which of the following refers to documentation obtained from an insurance company that allows patients to receive treatment using their benefits	preauthorization	36
13899608168	Which of the following reports is used to follow up on outstanding claims to third party payers?	aging	37
13899627192	The patient is sent a statement for an office visit. The total amount of the bill is $100.00 and this amount must be paid before the insurance company will pay on the claim. Which of the following is this called?	deductible	38
13899636613	When should a provider have a patient sign an ABN?	when the items may be denied and prior to performing the service	39
13899667247	A patient had surgery two weeks ago to repair a dislocated ankle, and return today to have the flexor tendon muscle repaired. Which of the following modifiers should be reported for today's service?	79	40
13899674330	Which of the following are necessary to complete a CMS 1500 form?	diagnosis and CPT codes, physician information, and demographic information	41
13899699775	Which of the following fees posted to the patient's account is an example of "usual, customary, and reasonable"?	allowed amount	42
13899715278	When following up on a denied claim, an insurance and coding specialist should have which of the following information available when speaking with the insurance company?	patient's claim number, physician NPI, and patient insurance ID number	43
13899732307	Which of the following Medicare parts covers inpatient hospital stays?	Part A	44
13899743974	Which of the following is the most likely cause of the deposits not agreeing with the credits on the day sheet of the patient ledger?	payment is misplaced	45
13899762924	The most effective method to manage patient statements and other financial invoices as well as avoid payment delays is to	collect fees at the time of service	46
13899770031	collections agencies are regulated by the	fair debt collections practices act	47
13899780969	Providers may receive payment directly from the insurance carrier by accepting an	assignment of benefits	48
13899800147	When filling an electronic insurance claim, the insurance and coding specialist processes which of the following forms?	CMS-1500 claim form	49
13899819056	When using an EHR system to enter CPT codes on a CMS 1500 claim form for electronic submission, which of the following should be entered on the claim form first?	the most resource-intensive procedure or service	50
13899839615	The provider is paid the same rate per patient whether or not they provide services and no matter which services were provided. This payment is known as	capitation	51
13899843803	In order to have claims paid as quickly as possible, the insurance specialist must be familiar with which of the following?	payer's claim processing procedures	52
13899874163	A patient has called to schedule an appointment for an office visit to see the doctor tomorrow for an earache. It is discovered during the scheduling process that the insurance policy on file has been cancelled. Which of the following should the insurance and coding specialist do next?	advise the patient to bring current insurance information to the appointment	53
13899898037	The insurance and coding specialist is billing the insurance company of a 66-year-old woman who has Medicare and is covered under her husband's private insurance. Which of the following should be billed first?	the husband's insurance	54
13899912721	When posting an insurance payment via an EOB, the amount that is considered contractual is the	insurance allowed amount	55
13899931234	Which of the following modifiers is required for a return to the operating room for an unplanned related procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period?	78	56
13899940717	To be eligible for Medicare, an alien resident must have lived in the US for	5 consecutive years	57
13899945612	DRG's are a type of	hospital inpatient reimbursement	58
13899957083	which of the following have spurred the development of DRG	advances in technology	59
13899963592	Unbundling, exploding, or a la carte coding are	fraudulent	60
13899974425	If a person eligible for Medicaid has other insurance coverage, Medicaid is always the	secondary carrier	61
13899983353	CPT codes, descriptions, and two-digit modifiers are copyrighted by the	American Medical Association (AMA)	62
13899990670	Codes 99281 through 99285 refer to	Emergency Department Services	63
13900006450	which of these hospital records will contain not only information about the patient's condition (including diagnosis and treatment) and final prognosis	discharge summary	64
13900011498	Add-on modifier -26 indicates the	Professional component	65
13900016536	The Physician's Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) is revised	annually	66
13900025368	Which of these are an advantage of electronic claims submission	-online error edit process identifies errors quickly -helps to increase cash to the practice -saves time for the sender and receiver	67
13900048302	when transferring codes to claim forms be careful to	keep from transposing numbers	68
13903188054	For Medicare inpatient services, a benefit period begins the	day a patient enters the hospital	69
13903231467	If multiple lacerations are repaired under the same classification and in the same group of anatomic parts a billing and coding specialist should	add the sum of lengths of report one code	70
13903255741	what does the bullet in the CPT codebooks stand for	new code	71
13903262493	basic CPT codes use	5 digits	72
13903270304	A patient might submit his own Medicare claim when	purchasing medical equipment	73
13903275670	When an illiterate patient cannot sign a Medicare form,	a witness should sign the form	74
13903291025	The transformation of verbal descriptions of diseases, injuries, and procedures into numbers is called	coding	75
13903297204	Two coding systems are used by physicians' offices. One is for diagnoses and the other is for	services and procedures	76
13903305509	Medicare is a federal health insurance program for:	-people 65 years or older -blind individuals -disabled widows	77
13903330838	A physician must make a decision to accept or refuse to treat a Medicaid patient based on the	entire medicaid program	78
13903344262	Which of the following is an example of unethical or illegal coding?	Dividing services provided into separate codes when a single code is available	79
13903366435	Which chapters of the ICD-10-CM code book includes certain infectious and parasitic diseases?	Chapter 1	80
13903371350	In some billing cases it is necessary to add a 2 digit modifier in order to	give a more accurate description	81
13903398196	What is the correct matching word part for cortex/o	outer region	82
13903404098	What is the correct matching word part for poly-	many	83
13903407571	What is the correct matching word part for retro/o	backward	84
13903412397	What is the correct matching word part for -uria	urination	85
13903418437	What is the correct matching word part for urethr/o	urethra	86
13903424603	What is the correct matching word part for ren/o	kidney	87
13903432117	What is the correct matching word part for vesic/o	bladder	88
13903441432	What is the correct matching word part for meat/o	opening or passageway	89
13903445228	What is the correct matching word part for ureter/o	ureter	90
13903449435	What is the correct matching word part for ur/o	urine	91
13903453282	What is the correct matching word part for nephr/o	kidney	92
13903459582	What is the correct matching word part for medull/o	middle or inner portion	93
13903468386	What is the correct matching word part for pyle/o	renal pelvis	94
13903468569	What is the correct matching word part for epi/o	upper or above	95
13903472468	What is the correct matching word part for py/o	pus	96
13903486855	What is the correct matching word part for gastr/o	stomach	97
13903486856	What is the correct matching word part for an/o	anus	98
13903492003	What is the correct matching word part for lingu/o	tongue	99
13903497543	What is the correct matching word part for emesis	vomiting	100
13903497749	What is the correct matching word part for or/o	mouth	101
13903503909	What is the correct matching word part for dent/o	teeth	102
13903503910	What is the correct matching word part for lip/o	fat	103
13903517412	What is the correct matching word part for col/o	colon	104
13903524661	What is the correct matching word part for enter/o	intestine	105
13903527792	What is the correct matching word part for esophag/o	esophagus	106
13903528207	What is the correct matching word part for gingiv/o	gum	107
13903530796	What is the correct matching word part for phag/o	eat or swallow	108
13903537652	What is the correct matching word part for proct/o	anus and rectum	109
13903542735	What is the correct matching word part for ile/o	ileum	110
13903542736	What is the correct matching word part for hepat/o	liver	111
13903554684	What is the correct matching word part for macr/o	large	112
13903559023	What is the correct matching word part for lymph/o	lymph	113
13903562566	What is the correct matching word part for sarc/o	flesh	114
13903569183	What is the correct matching word part for myel/o	bone marrow	115
13903575482	What is the correct matching word part for carcin/o	cancer	116
13903575483	What is the correct matching word part for onc/o	tumor	117
13903578882	What is the correct matching word part for peri	surrounding	118
13903585408	What is the correct matching word part for meta/o	beyond and change	119
13903588216	What is the correct matching word part for lytic-	reduce or destroy	120
13903593459	What is the correct matching word part for aut/o	self	121
13903604917	What is the correct matching word part for pelv/i	pelvis cavity	122
13903612022	What is the correct matching word part for gravid/o	pregnant	123
13903618352	What is the correct matching word part for prostat/o	prostate	124
13903624957	What is the correct matching word part for part/o	labor and childbirth	125
13903629933	What is the correct matching word part for spermat/o	spermatozoa	126
13903636234	What is the correct matching word part for galact/o	milk	127
13903636235	What is the correct matching word part for orch/o	testis	128
13903638932	What is the correct matching word part for pen/i	penis	129
13903644398	What is the correct matching word part for mast/o	breast	130
13903644399	What is the correct matching word part for -pexy	surgical fixation	131
13903649969	What is the correct matching word part for semin/i	semen or sperm	132
13903654685	What is the correct matching word part for gest/o	carry young or offspring	133
13903659241	What is the correct matching word part for cervic/o	cervix	134
13903664261	What is the correct matching word part for hyster/o	uterus	135
13903667844	What is the correct matching word part for corp/u	body	136

Powered by Quizlet.com

Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

Powered by Quizlet.com

Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

Powered by Quizlet.com

Medical Billing Basics Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

10924186041	chargemaster (charge description master [CDM])	document that contains a computer-generated list of procedures, services, and supplies with charges for each.	0
10924199982	Billing Procedures	Computer-generated statements. Encounter forms. Photocopied statements. Online billing statements	1
10924615362	What Items do chargemasters generally contain?	CPT/HCPCS Procedure Code Charge Description Revenue Code Charge Department Code Charge Code Charge Status	2
10924615363	Charge description master (CDM) or Chargemaster	is a large database that contains the price list for all services provided to its patients. Also used to collect information on all the goods and services provided to patients.	3
10924615364	CDM	Charge Description Master	4
10926984189	HCPCS	Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System ("hick picks")	5
10927010528	CPT	Current Procedural Terminology	6
10927426541	All chargemasters contain which item(s)? D	procedure code description charge all of the above	7
10927447265	The healthcare provider's comprehensive price list of all supplies, services, and equipment usage fees is referred to as the chargemaster or ___C__.	procedure codes provider schedule CDM master list	8
10927461314	The fees on the chargemaster __B___.	are always the same vary from provider to provider are set by the procedure code system do not include tax	9
10927480382	How often is the chargemaster or fee schedule updated? B	every day every year (at a minimum) every five years (at a minimum) never	10
10927570385	The CDM, may also be called	the service master price list charge list service item master,	11
10966144715	chargemaster committee	HIM Finance, & billing Technical and informations systems Management from all clinical departments	12
10966152130	plan for CDM Maintenance.	Purpose - Compliance Frequency - Update CDM & Codes, Risks- minimize violations Process - Line by line review of codes and charges Responsible Parties - Chargemaster committee	13
10974051653	Charge Description	The charge or item description identifies the procedure, service, product (including medications), or other items provided to a patient.	14
10974093706	Elements of a chargemaster	Descriptions : Charge Description Codes: Procedure, Service, or Product code, Revenue Code, Department code, Charge Code Charges: Charge, Charge Status	15
10974161362	Procedure, Service, or Product code	CPT or HCPCS Level II codes identify the specific procedure, service or product supplied to the patient	16
10974175947	Revenue code	Unique 4-digit number that represent descriptions and dollar amounts charged for hospital services provided to a patient.	17
10974188029	Department code	identifies the department that revenue should be allocated to foraccounting purposes.	18
10974211387	Charge code	Each item in the chargemaster is uniquely identified by a charge code assigned by the organization and may also be referred to as the charge description number or item code	19
10974242730	charge	simply the price or fee charged for the item.	20
10974251054	charge status	indicates active assignment of a charge and can be used for tracking when and how often an item has been charged.	21
15764575831	Hard coding	Use of the charge description master to code repetitive services.	22
15764587624	soft coding	Coders perform the coding on procedures that vary from patient to patient.	23
15765367570	Process for Coding/Billing for Healthcare Services Physicians and non	Diagnosis Codes - ICD-10-CM Procedure Codes - CPT® Supply Codes - HCPCS (if applicable) Billing - CMS-1500 form	24
15765471275	Coding/Billing for Outpatient Healthcare Institutions	Diagnosis Codes - ICD-10-CM Procedure Codes - CPT® (billing) Supply Codes - HCPCS (as appropriate) Billing - UB-04 form	25
15765527688	What procedure systems are used for outpatient hospital settings?	procedures are reported with CPT® and HCPCS codes in all outpatient hospital settings.	26
15765560732	What procedure system is used to report inpatient billing?	The new procedure system ICD-10-PCS is for hospital inpatient billing	27
15765629657	The Medicare Exception	Medicare requires all charges for same-day surgery to be billed on the CMS-1500. Coding/Billing for Medicare Patients for Outpatient Surgery Diagnosis Codes - ICD-10 Procedure Codes - CPT® (billing) Supply Codes - HCPCS (as appropriate) Billing - CMS-1500	28
15784783335	What are the four main parts to a superbill?	Provider information - includes name, degree, service location, and signature. Patient information - patient's name, DOB, and insurance information. Service information - date of service, CPT and ICD-10-CM codes, modifiers, time, units, quantity for drugs, and authorization information. Additional information - notes and comments.	29
15785264651	Coding and Billing by Service Provider		30
15784828719	Who Uses the UB-04?	Facilities	31
15784844488	Where are revenue codes required?	UB-04 for facilites	32
15784885236	What are the components for a Revenue code?	1) demographics, including payer information 2)fee for each service from the chargemaster 3)charge list, with description 4)correct diagnosis, procedure, and supply codes	33
15784988343	Who uses CMS 1500 and what is billed?	Physician's offices. Professional services and equipment and supply charges	34

Powered by Quizlet.com

Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

Powered by Quizlet.com

Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

Powered by Quizlet.com

Medical Insurance(Medical Billing & Coding) Flashcards

Define the terminology necessary to understand and submit medical insurance claims.

Terms : Hide Images

14312376096	5 Examples of Medical Insurance Coverage	Medicaid Military Medicare Point Of Service (POS) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)	0
14312389907	The Steps Involved When Screening Patients for Insurance.	Name Date Of Birth Name of Primary Insured Social Security Number Insurance Carrier ID Carrier Group Number	1
14312417844	The Importance of Obtaining Referrals and PreAuthorization	A written order from your primary care doctor for you to see a specialist or get certain medical services. In many Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs), you need to get a referral before you can get medical care from anyone except your primary care doctor.	2
14312429351	Referral Management	A system is a unique and powerful tool for health providers to keep track of their patient referrals throughout the care continuum. Its main goal is to improve and streamline communication among primary care physicians, specialists, and any other health providers involved in a patient's care.	3
14312437440	How do Referrals Work?	If your specialist recommends that you see another specialist, you'll need to coordinate a new referral with your primary care physician for that care. Some Blue Care Network plans let you self-refer, which means you can see any doctor you want without a referral from your primary care physician.	4
14312449656	PreAuthorization	Authorization, also known as precertification, is a process of reviewing certain medical, surgical or behavioral health services to ensure medical necessity and appropriateness of care prior to services being rendered. The review also includes a determination of whether the service being requested is a covered benefit under your benefit plan. Authorizations are only required for certain services. Your physician will submit authorization/precertification requests electronically, by telephone, or in writing by fax or mail. If approved, an authorization number is then generated by Capital Health Plan and is available to you via CHPConnect. If the requested service is not authorized, the member and provider are notified in writing with the specific reasons for the denial and appeal rights.	5
14312456922	CHAMPVA	Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs a comprehensive health care program in which the VA shares the cost of covered health care services and supplies with eligible beneficiaries.	6
14312461290	CHAMPUS	Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services Tricare (styled TRICARE), formerly known as the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS), is a health care program of the United States Department of Defense Military Health System.	7
14312468883	Workers Compensation	a form of insurance providing wage replacement and medical benefits to employees injured in the course of employment in exchange for mandatory relinquishment of the employee's right to sue their employer for the tort of negligence.	8
14312488258	The impacts of HIPAA requirements related to insurance and the release of patient information. Legal and ethical issues related to medical insurance	Health care professionals practice in an environment that is complex, with many regulations, laws and standards of practice. Performing an abortion is legal but may not be considered ethical by other health care professionals or members of the public at large. Other ethical dilemmas arise at the end of life, when a decision must be made to turn off life-support machines and allow death to occur. Other common ethical issues a health care professional might face are confidentiality, relationships with patients and matters related to consent, especially in the treatment of minors.	9
14312497212	Understanding the process of procedures and diagnostic coding	The translation of services rendered into numeric value	10
14312504309	HSA (Health Savings Account)	Health spending accounts might be for you. You can use these accounts for qualified medical expenses, such as deductibles and copays. Health spending accounts come in three forms: Health savings account, or HSA. Health reimbursement arrangement, or HRA.	11
14312512562	FSA (Flexible Spending Account)	A health flexible spending account (FSA) is part of your benefits package. This plan lets you use pre-tax dollars to pay for eligible health care expenses for you, your spouse, and your eligible dependents. Here's how an FSA works. Money is set aside from your paycheck before taxes are taken out.	12

Powered by Quizlet.com

Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

Powered by Quizlet.com

Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

Class Notes

Social Science

Math

Science

Fine Arts

Test Prep

Textbook Notes

Members Only

Forum

Blogs

Textbook Request

Medical Billing and Coding Chapter 10 Flashcards

Medical Billing Practice Flashcards

Flashcards

Flashcards

Medical Billing Basics Flashcards

Flashcards

Flashcards

Medical Insurance(Medical Billing & Coding) Flashcards

Flashcards

Flashcards

Pages

Need Help?

Need Notes?

About Course-Notes.Org

You are here

Pages

Need Help?

Need Notes?

About Course-Notes.Org