| CourseNotes

Biochemistry Flashcards

5942760960	What happens in condensation reaction?	water molecule is removed from two monomers	0
5942768008	Examples of monomers (3)	simple sugar, amino acid, fatty acid	1
5942771463	Examples of macromolecule (3)	protein, DNA (or RNA), lipid	2
5942799464	Smallest living unit of an organism	cell	3
5942809646	These structures lack a nucleus or organelles (bacteria)	prokaryotes	4
5942811968	These structures have a nucleus and organelles (plants/animals)	eukaryotes	5
5942821828	Where in the cell is protein made?	RER	6
5942839421	Site in a cell for synthesis and metabolism of lipids	SER	7
5942843198	Cell structure that processes and packages macromolecules	Golgi apparatus	8
5942846281	Cell structure that contains digestive enzymes ("garbage men of the cell")	lysosomes	9
5942894829	What form of protein, carbs, and fats are absorbable by intestine, respectively? (3)	amino acids, monosaccharides, fatty acids/glycerol	10
5942922124	Functions of salivary glands (4)	moisten food, clean teeth, dissolve molecules, digest	11
5942928122	Functions of stomach (2)	digestion, secret acids, mucus, and digestive enzymes	12
5942943540	How many liters of gastric juice is produced by the stomach each day?	2-3L	13
5942951963	Inactive precursor of active enzyme pepsin; chops protein into small fragments (activated by HCl or pepsin)	pepsinogen	14
5942960752	HCl helps to activate _______________, break down _____________ ___________, destroy ______________, and denature ______________	pepsinogen, connective tissue, pathogens, proteins	15
5942968204	How does the stomach protect itself from HCl and pepsin? (3)	mucus coat, rapid replacement of cells, tight junctions between cells	16
5942977246	This is essential to the absorption of Vitamin B12; only indispensable function of the stomach	intrinsic factor	17
5942991794	Gastrin is secreted by ________ in gastric gland into the ________	G cells, blood	18
5942997237	Gastrin stimulates secretion of _____, and the motility of _________ ____________.	HCl, large intestine	19
5943004463	Three stages of gastric secretion	cephalic, gastric, intestinal	20
5943008201	First stimulation of cephalic phase	sight/smell of food	21
5943021969	Gastric phase stimulated by what?	food in stomach	22
5943046495	Intestinal phase: after entering small intenstines, chyme inhibit gastric secretion and mobility via... (2)	enterogastric reflex, local hormones (secretin, CCK, GIP)	23
5943053414	When acid in the intestine stops G-cells from secreting gastrin thus slowing or stopping gastric motility	enterogastric reflex	24
5943086626	When no chyme is in the small intestine, the ______________ sphincter is closed. Bile flows into the ____________.	hepatopancreatic, gallbladder	25
5943090621	Functions of gallbladder (2)	store bile, absorb water	26
5943100731	Bile acids and phospholipids are reabsorbed in the ileum and returned to the liver via __________ ______________.	enterohepatic circulation	27
5943115020	Secretes pancreatic juice into duodenum through the pancreatic duct	pancreas	28
5943124431	Endocrine functions of pancreas	secrete hormones into blood (long-term control of digestion)	29
5943131516	Pancreas secretes ______________ mL of pancreatic juice per day (empties into duodenum)	1200-1500	30
5943140045	Pancreatic juice is an __________ mixture containing... (3)	alkaline; sodium bicarb, digestive enzymes and zymogens	31
5943158807	The _________ _______ stimulates pancreatic secretion	vagus nerve	32
5943164711	Chyme with acid and fat stimulate the duodenal mucosa to secrete __________	CCK	33
5943167053	CCK is responsible for relaxation of __________________ ____________, contraction of _______________, and secretion of _____________ ________	hepatopancreatic sphincter, gallbladder, pancreatic juices	34
5943179564	During the intestinal phase, acidic chyme stimulates the duodenum to release _______	secretin	35
5943184487	Nutrients pass into the _________ though small intestine walls	bloodstream	36
5943186864	These activate zymogens and complete digestion of carbs and proteins	brush border enzymes	37
5943199415	Duodenum endocrine cells secret _____ and _______ in the blood	CCK, secretin	38
5943208096	Process in which molecules move from region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration	passive diffusion	39
5943216790	Transport of solute molecules to higher concentrations	active transport	40
5943224879	Transport of molecules across a cell's membrane via specific integral proteins	facilitated diffusion	41
5943240942	Most digestible carb is ______, begins in the mouth by _________ _______. Full digestion of this carb occurs in the ______ ___________.	starch, salivary amylase, small intestine	42
5943252352	What is glucose absorbed by?	SGLT	43
5943257400	Proteins are digested by what 2 things?	proteases and peptidases	44
5943259634	Protein digestion starts in the __________ and continues in the _________ ____________.	stomach, small intestine	45
5943268605	Lipids are digested by enzymes called ___________, broken up by ______ ________ in bile.	lipases, bile salts	46
5943277416	When lipase digests fats, the products are (2)	FFAs and a glycerol	47
5943287343	Most common type of movement of the small intestine; followed by ___________	segmentation, peristalsis	48
5943294101	Functions of large intestine (2)	concentrate waste, bacterial digestion	49
5943308309	Neural control of defecation (3)	filling rectum, relaxation of internal sphincter, voluntary relaxation of external sphincter	50
5962469631	3 fates for foods	energy to cells, synthesize structures, stored as fat	51
5962474994	The totality of an organism's chemical reactions	metabolism	52
5962480653	A metabolic pathway begins with a specific __________ (starting molecule) and ends with a _____________.	reactant, product	53
5962487079	Each step of metabolism is controlled by a(n) ____________.	enzyme	54
5962503417	____________ reactions use ATP to combine smaller molecules, such as glucose, into larger compounds, such as glycogen, and release small amounts of heat.	anabolic	55
5962506737	____________ reactions break down larger molecules into smaller compounds and release energy in the form of heat.	catabolic	56
5962511206	Where is potential energy stored?	bonds	57
5962513696	Type of energy: release of energy from bonds	chemical	58
5962527133	The study of energy transformations	thermodynamics	59
5962531759	In a closed system, such as that approximated by liquid in a thermos is what?	isolated from surroundings	60
5962534012	In an open system, energy and matter can be transferred between ___________ and ____________.	system and surroundings	61
5962550724	Energy transferred in the food chain: only 10% is actually transferred, the rest is lost as heat...what is this known as?	10% rule	62
5962554027	A measure of disorder or randomness	entropy	63
5962569592	Only processes with a ___________ are spontaneous	negative (delta) G	64
5962579255	When delta G < 0	spontaneous (exergonic), wont require energy	65
5962582213	When delta G > 0	non spontaneous (endergonic), will require energy	66
5962586308	When delta G = 0	equilibrium	67
5962597079	The energy available for doing work	free energy	68
5962600680	Chemical reactions that release free energy	exergonic (spontaneous)	69
5962603518	Chemical reactions that require input of free energy	endergonic (non-spontaneous)	70
5962618049	Three main kinds of work that a cell does	mechanical, transport, chemical	71
5962622481	To do work, cells manage energy resources by _________ __________.	energy coupling	72
5962647159	How is a bond broken?	activation energy	73
5962650925	________ can lower activation energy	catalysts	74
5962659214	________ reduce the amount of activation energy required for a reaction to proceed.	enzymes	75
5962663495	Cofactors and coenzymes are _________________ helpers.	nonenzyme	76
5962679642	An enzyme works by binding with _________ at the ________ _______. This forms a ___ _________.	substrates, active site, ES complex	77
5962693221	The active site on an enzyme can lower an activation energy barrier by orienting ___________ correctly, straining ____________ ________, and providing a favorable __________________	substrate, substrate bonds, microenvironment	78
5962702336	An enzyme's activity can be affect by ____ and ____________.	pH and temp	79
5962709809	These bind to the active site of an enzyme, competing with the substrate.	competitive inhibitors	80
5962715724	These bind to another part of an enzyme (not the active site), causing the enzyme to change shape and makes the active site less effective.	noncompetitive inhibitors	81
5962739456	__________ ____________ is the term used to describe cases where a protein's function at one site is affected by binding of a regulatory molecule at another site (can either inhibit or stimulate an enzyme's activity)	allosteric regulation	82
5962749802	A form of allosteric regulation that can amplify enzyme activity	cooperativity	83
5962757572	In ____________ _____________, the end product of a metabolic pathway shuts down the pathway (prevents a cell from wasting resources by making more product than is needed)	feedback inhibition	84
5962767825	Loss of electrons is _________	oxidation	85
5962767826	Gain of electrons is _________	reduction	86
5962774022	Which energy system is used for quick bursts of work?	phosphagen	87
5962779112	Which energy system is for ~1-1.5 minutes of work; no oxygen is needed	anaerobic	88
5962782911	Which energy system is for more than 3 minutes of work; oxygen needed	aerobic	89
5962795901	Phosphagen energy system: maximal rate of ATP production, capacity to make ATP	very fast, very limited	90
5962799542	Anaerobic energy system: maximal rate of ATP production, capacity to make ATP	fast, limited	91
5962801901	Aerobic energy system: maximal rate of ATP production, capacity to make ATP	very slow, unlimited	92

Powered by Quizlet.com

Introduction to Medical Billing & Coding Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

4288610098	WHO	World Health Organization	0
4288610099	ICD	International Classification of Diseases	1
4288610100	Who developed ICD to:	collect data for statistical purposes	2
4288610101	CPT	Current Procedural Terminiology	3
4288610102	CPT was developed by...	American Medical Association	4
4288610103	AMA	American Medical Association	5
4288610104	Medicare	federal health insurance program for people who are 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease	6
4288610105	Medicaid	A joint federal and state program that helps low-income individuals or families pay for the costs associated with long-term medical and custodial care, provided they qualify.	7
4288610106	Medicaid is funded by ....	funded by the federal government, Medicaid is run by the state where coverage may vary.	8
4288610107	Medicaid is run by...	funded by the federal government, Medicaid is run by the state where coverage may vary.	9
4288610108	HIPAA	Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996	10
4288610109	HIPAA regulates	andates regulations that govern privacy, security, and electronic transaction standards for health care information	11
4288610110	PIP	Personal Injury Protection	12
4288610111	PIP	Reimburses medical expenses for covered individuals, regardless of fault, for treatment due to an auto accident.	13
4288610112	Disability Insurance	offers income protection to individuals who become disabled for a long period of time, and as a result can no longer work during that time period	14
4288610113	Disability insurance is managed by	Social Security	15
4288610114	Disability insurance is paid if	Was under the care and treatment of a licensed provider during initial disability and continues care with the same	16
4288610115	OSHA	Occupational Safety and Health Administration	17
4288610116	OSHA protects	protect all employees against injuries from occupational hazards in the workplace	18
4288610117	OSHA is an agency under	U.S. Department of Labor	19
4288610118	HMO	Health Maintenance Organization	20
4288610119	HMO gives access to what doctors and nurses	Those within their network, care is covered only if you see a doctor within their network (few opportunities for out of network docs)	21
4288610120	Networks are made up of	providers that have agreed to lower their rates for plan members and also meet quality standards	22
4288610121	Lower insurance premiums	HMO	23
4288610122	PPO	Preferred Provider Organization	24
4288610123	PPO gives you access to what doctors and nurses	Those within and outside of network, but better cost if you see an in-network doc	25
4288610124	Higher insurance premiums	PPO	26
4288610125	low or no deductible	HMO	27
4288610126	HMO Act of 1973	authorized federal grants and loans to private organizations that wished to develop HMOs which are responsible for providing health care services to subscribers in a given geographic area	28
4288610127	Blue Cross Policy	plan initiated by Baylor University to guarantee Dallas teachers 21 days of hospital care for $6 a year, in 1929	29
4288610128	DRG stands for	Diagnosis Related Group	30
4288610129	DRG is	statistical system of classifying any inpatient stay into groups for the purposes of payment	31
4288610130	Copayment is abbreviated	Co-Pay	32
4288610131	Co-Pay	in an insurance policy and paid by an insured person each time a medical service is accessed	33
4288610132	BCBS	Blue Cross Blue Shield	34
4288610133	Clinical Laboratory Improvements Act	CLIA	35
4288610134	CLIA	regulates all laboratory testing (except research) performed on humans in the U.S.	36
4288610135	AMA is for	medical organization for professionals and medical students	37
4288610136	Third Party Administrator	TPA	38
4288610137	TPA	An organization that administrates group insurance policies for an employer	39
4288610138	Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs	CHAMPVA	40
4288610139	CHAMPVA	comprehensive health care program in which the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) shares the cost of covered health care services and supplies with eligible beneficiaries	41
4288610140	Who are CHAMPVA beneficiaries	The spouse or child of a veteran who has been rated permanently and totally disabled for a service-connected disability by a VA regional office, or The surviving spouse or child of a veteran who died from a VA-rated service-connected disability, or The surviving spouse or child of a veteran who was at the time death rated permanently and totally disabled, or The surviving spouse or child of a military member who died in the line of duty, not due to misconduct (in most of these cases, these family members are eligible for TRICARE, not CHAMPVA).	42
4288610141	Tricare	military insurance	43
4288610142	Who is eligible for Tricare	Active duty family members Retired service members and their families Family members of activated Guard/Reserve members Non-activated Guard/Reserve members and their families who qualify for care under the Transitional Assistance Management Program Retired Guard/Reserve members (age 60 and receiving retired pay) and their families Survivors Medal of Honor recipients and their families Qualified former spouses	44

Powered by Quizlet.com

Medical Billing and Coding Final Flashcards

Medical Billing and Coding Final study guide

Terms : Hide Images

8762148593	What is a rule of conduct established and enforced by an authority or governing body,such as the federal government	Law	0
8762148594	Another name for terminating care of a patient is	D) withdrawing from a case	1
8762148595	A health-care professional who stops care without providing an equally qualified substitute can be charged with	D) abandonment	2
8762148596	The appropriate way for a physician to terminate the care of a patient is to	Send the patient a certified letter	3
8762148597	What is the document called in which a patient names someone to make decisions regarding medical care in the event he or she is unable to do so?	durable power of attorney	4
8762148598	A written court order addressed to a specific person, requiring that person's presence in court at a specific time is	subpoena	5
8762148599	A process in which the opposing sides choose a person outside the court system with special knowledge in the field, to hear and decide a dispute is a(n)	arbitration	6
8762148600	At the end of a labor and delivery nurse's shift, a nurse leaves a woman in labor before the nurse's replacement arrives. What kind of negligence does this constitute?	abandonment	7
8762148601	A surgical incision is reopened after a patient starts to show signs of internal bleeding. It is discovered that the surgeon did not complete closure of all severed capillaries at the operative site. This is an example of	malpractice	8
8762148602	A legal document addressed to the patient's family and physicians stating what type of treatment the patient wishes or does not wish when terminally ill is an(n)	living will	9
8762148603	A physician reports a case of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome(AIDS) to the state. This is	the physician's public duty	10
8762148604	Which of the following is the appropriate way for the medical assistant working in a physician's office to leave a message for patients at their place of employment?	leave a message that the patient's doctor's office is calling	11
8762148605	is considered a standard of behavior and a concept of right and wrong, beyond the legal consideration.	Ethics	12
8762148606	Which of the following created federal laws to protect health-care workers from health hazards on the job	OSHA	13
8762148607	are formed through the influence of the family, culture and society, and serve as a basis for ethical conduct.	Moral values	14
8762148608	For two parties to enter into an agreement, or contract, it is essential that both are capable of understanding the terms and conditions. This is referred to as	contractual capacity	15
8762148609	Speaking in such a way as to negatively influence others against an individual is an example of	defamation of character	16
8762148610	The promise of "miracle cures" is an example of	fraud	17
8762148611	An advantage of computers in that they	process information with great speed	18
8762148612	A guideline for releasing medical information is to	have the patient give a verbal consent	19
8762148613	Internal audits are done	on random records by medical staff	20
8762148614	One of the most important duties of a medical assistant is to	fill out and maintain accurate and thorough patient records	21
8762148615	Important information about a patient's medical history and present condition is found in the	patient's chart	22
8762148616	Patient records are used for	patient education, evaluating the quality of treatment, and medical research.	23
8762148617	WHich of the following organizations reviews patient charts to monitor whether the care provided and fee charged met accepted standards?	Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations	24
8762148618	The appropriate way to speak to a patient who has a hearing impairment is to	speak slowly	25
8762148619	The appropriate way to address a patient is	Mrs. Jones	26
8762148620	A physician tries unsuccessfully to call a patient. The medical assistant should	record and date the call in the patient record	27
8762148621	The best place to interview a patient is	in a private room	28
8762148622	The type of documentation that provides an orderly series of steps for dealing with any medical case is	SOAP	29
8762148623	Of the federal programs providing health care, the largest is, which provides health insurance for citizens aged 65 and other	Medicare	30
8762148624	The person whose name the insurance is carried under is called the	Subscriber	31
8762148625	In most cases, the insurer pays an annual cost or___ for health -care insurance.	premium	32
8762148626	A fixed dollar amount the subscriber must pay or "meet" each year before the insurer begins to cover expenses is the	deductible	33
8762148627	Some medical practices may require the subscriber to pay a small fee at the time of service.	copayment	34
8762148628	In a typical medical practice, insurance claims are filed	a few business days after the date of service	35
8762148629	The most likely outcome of an insurance claim submitted with a diagnosis code of a sore throat and a treatment code indicating a cast for a broken leg would be	denied as a billing error because the treatment was not medically necessary based on the diagnosis	36
8762148630	An insurance claims department compares the fee the doctor charges with the benefits provided by the patient's health plan. This is called the	review for allowable benefits	37
8762148631	Which of the following is what the patient owes after the insurance company has paid?	subscriber liability	38
8762148632	Which of the following types of insurance covers injuries that are caused by the insured or that occurred on the insured's property?	liability	39
8762148633	Under Medicare Part B, patients are not permitted to	enroll, because coverage is automatic	40
8762148634	A patient who has been hospitalized up to 90 days for each benefit period is covered under	Medicare Part A	41
8762148635	A benefit period for Medicare begins the day a patient goes into the hospital and ends when that patient has not been hospitalized for ___ days	60	42
8762148636	Which of the following is a characteristic of Medicaid?	it is a health cost assistance program	43
8762148637	Patients under the age of 65 who are blind or widowed or who have serious long-term disabilities, such as chronic joint pain or _____, many also be entitled to Medicare.	kidney failure	44
8762148638	Which of the following is included in Medicare benefits for respite care	The terminally ill patient is moved to a care facility for the respite	45
8762148639	An organizations that provides pain relief to terminally ill patients and supports these patients and their families is a	hospice	46
8762148640	The amount Medicare pays the physician or health-care provider after the $100 annual deductible is met is	80%	47
8762148641	Which of the following is included under Workers' Compensation insurance?	Rehabilitation costs are covered to return an employee to work	48
8762148642	Medicare encourages all practices to file claims electronically because	the process saves time	49
8762148643	A characteristic of health maintenance organizations(HMO) is	physicians with HMO contracts are often paid a capitated rate	50
8762148644	HMO copayments are often	$10-$20	51
8762148645	A husband and wife are both employed and have work-sponsored insurance plans that cover each other and their three children. Which insurance plan is the primary payer?	the insurance plan of the person whose birthday comes first in the calendar year	52
8762148646	Electronic media claims (EMC) include	data elements that are transmitted in a computer file	53
8762148647	An appropriate approach to maintaining patient confidentiality on the computer is to	change your password every 90 days	54
8762148648	Under a contracted or fixed prepayment called____, physicians are paid a fixed amount of money to provide needed care.	capitation	55
8762148649	TRICARE and CHAMPVA cover	families of all military personnel.	56
8762148650	When entering data in medical billing programs, always	enter information using capital letters	57
8762148651	The determination of the amount of money paid by a third-party papyer for a procedure is	pre-certification	58
8762148652	What is the approval for payment from a third-party requested prior to a procedure?	pre-authorization	59
8762148653	When a physician agrees to accept assignment, this means the physician	will accept the amount of money that Medicaid will pay as payment in full for the Medicaid covered service	60
8762148654	Eligibility for Medicaid is	based on the patient's reported income from the previous month	61
8762148655	Which of the following is part of the process for verifying workers' compensation coverage?	obtaining the employer's approval to provide treatment	62
8762148656	What is the term for the 10-digit number identifying the physician's medical specialty?	taxonomy code	63
8762148657	What are usual fees that are listed on the office's fee schedule	fee charged to most of their patients most of the time under typical conditions	64
8762148658	Which of the following must be verbally discussed with the beneficiary to enable the beneficiary to consider options and make informed choices?	ABN	65
8762148659	If providers submit a claim for a simple procedure when in fact a more complicated procedure was documented in the medical record,______may occur	underpayment	66
8762148660	Which of the following may occur when providers submit claims that do not meet Medicare's coding or medical neccessity policies?	denial of claim	67
8762148661	The use of ICD-9 codes is mandated by	HIPAA	68
8762148662	A patient's diagnosis as established by the physician	describes the primary condition for which the patient is receiving treatment	69
8762148663	ICD-9 codes are updated	yearly	70
8762148664	The Alphabetic Index is organized by	the condition	71
8762148665	When you encounter the word see in the Alphabetic Index, you know that	you must look in another category	72
8762148666	The Tabular List is organized by	the part of the body involved	73
8762148667	In order to ensure reimbursement at the highest allowed level,CPT codes must	include numbers and modifiers that reflect the services performed	74
8762148668	___The____ codes are the most important of the CPT codes	E/M	75
8762148669	___For reporting purposes, CPT considers a patient "new" if the patient has not received professional services within the past ___year(s)	three	76
8762148670	When unbundling is done intentionally to receive more payment than is correct, the claim is likely to be considered	fraudulent	77
8762148671	The Health Care Common Procedure Coding System(HCPCS) was developed for use in coding services for	Medicare patients	78
8762148672	Analysis of the connection between the diagnostic and the procedural information on a claim is called	code linkage	79
8762148673	An act of deception used to take advantage of another person or entity is called	fraud	80
8762148674	A health-care provider who practices under false qualifications/credentials is guilty of	fraud	81
8762148675	To avoid the risk of fraud by discovering and correcting compliance problems, medical offices usually have a(n)	compliance plan	82
8762148676	Which of the following ICD-9-CM conventions is used around synonyms, alternative workings, or explanations?	\| \|	83
8762148677	Which of the following ICD-9-CM conventions indicates that the entries following it refine the content of a preceding entry?	includes	84
8762148678	Which ICD-9-CM convention indicates that an entry is not classified as part of the preceding code	excludes	85
8762148679	The ICD-9-CM convention code first underlying disease means	the code may not be used as the first code	86
8762148680	What does the ICD-9-CM convention NEC indicate	not elsewhere classifiable	87
8762148681	When analyzing diagnoses and locating the correct ICD code, in which step of the five-step process do you record the diagnosis code on the insurance claim	step 5	88
8762148682	In which step of the five-step process of analyzing and locating the correct ICD code do you locate the statement of the diagnosis in the patient's medical record?	step 1	89
8762148683	In step 3 of the five-step process of analyzing and locating the correct ICD code, you will	locate the code from the Alphabetic index in the ICD's Tabular index	90
8762148684	Step 4 of the five-step process of analyzing and locating the correct ICD involves	finding the code that corresponds to the patient's specifie disease or condition	91
8762148685	Finding the code in the ICD's Alphabetic Index is which step of analyzing and locating the correct ICD?	step 2	92
8762148686	If a lab bills for a general health panel but fails to perform one of the tests, it is guilty of which of these fraudulent coding and billing practices	reporting services that were not performed	93
8762148687	When a patient has no symptoms of a disease and the provider performs the tests for that disease at the patient's request, the provider has committed which of these fraudulent coding and billing practices?	performing billing for procedures that are not related to the patient's condition	94
8762148688	Billing for an Evaluation and Management service when the only service provided was a simple injection is an example of	reporting services at a higher level than was carried out	95
8762148689	There is a question concerning a claim for a procedure submitted last year. Where will you look to double-check codes in question?	last year's CPT	96
8762148690	A plus sign (+) is used to indicate	add-on codes	97
8762148691	Modifiers to CPT indicate	that some special circumstance applies to the service	98
8762148692	National codes issued by CMS that cover many supplies and durable medical equipment are	HCPCS Level II codes	99
8762148693	Inaccuracy of linking diagnostic codes and procedural codes will result in all of the following except	timely processing of claims	100
8762148694	Which of these structures or substances in the skin helps prevent UV radiation from damaging deep structures of the skin?	melanin	101
8762148695	An easy way to remember when an E code is required is	if the diagnosis makes you ask "How did that happen?"	102
8762148696	The skin plays a role in regulating body temperature by	dilating or constricting blood vessels in the skin	103
8762148697	Which of the following is mostly adipose tissue?	subcutaneous layer	104
8762148698	Sweat glands are found in the	dermis	105
8762148699	When the supply of oxygen in the blood is low, the skin looks rather pale or	bluish	106
8762148700	The most deadly skin cancer is	melonoma	107
8762148701	The most common skin cancer is	basal cell carcinoma	108
8762148702	The first thing you should do when answering the telephone is	identify the medical office and yourself	109
8762148703	The appropriate way to deal with a caller who refuse to identify himself is to	suggest that he write a letter to the physician and mark it "Personal"	110
8762148704	The recommended procedure for handling billing inquiries is to	pull the patient's chart and billing information	111
8762148705	If a patient was overcharged for services, the appropriate procedure is to	ask the patient to wait for a corrected statement before sending payment	112
8762148706	If patient calls with a billing problem but, in fact the proper fee was charged, the best approach is to	speak to the physician before responding to the patient	113
8762148707	If a patient remains dissatisfied after discussing a bill,	document all comments and relay the information to the physician	114
8762148708	A guideline for dealing with an angry caller is to	assure the patient that you will do your best to correct the problem	115
8762148709	A guideline to follow when an attorney calls the office is to	release information only when the physician has authorized you to do so	116
8762148710	One of the most important telephone skills is saying words correctly, which is called	pronunciation	117
8762148711	Speaking clearly and distinctly to help the person you are speaking to understand you is called	enunciation	118
8762148712	The appropriate way to address a patient with a last name that is different to pronounce is to	ask the patient how to pronounce her name	119
8762148713	If you do not recognize the name of the patient calling the most appropriate response is	"Have you been to this practice before?"	120
8762148714	If you put a caller on hold and determine it will be a long wait,	offer to call back	121
8762148715	When a call with a patient is long or complicated	summarize the details of the call to ensure understanding by both you and the patient	122
8762148716	When dealing with a caller who is nervous, upset, or angry,	show empathy and an understanding of the caller's feelings	123
8762148717	Before placing an outgoing telephone call to a patient you should	verify the correct phone number	124
8762148718	Fax machines in a medical office	should be placed in a secure location	125

Powered by Quizlet.com

AP Language - Week Four Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

5023008088	parody	A work that closely imitates the styles or content of another with the specific aim of comic effect and/or ridicule. It distorts or exaggerates distinctive features of the original.	0
5023023970	pedantic	An adjective that describes words, phrases, or general tone that is overly scholarly, academic, or bookish.	1
5023028214	periodic sentence	Presents its central meaning in a main clause at the end. The independent clause is preceded by a phrase or clause that cannot stand alone.	2
5023039756	personification	A figure of speech in which the author presents or describes concepts, animals, or inanimate objects by endowing them with human attributes or emotions.	3
5023047982	point of view	The perspective in which a story is told. There are two general divisions and many subdivisions within those.	4
5023056820	prose	One of the major divisions of genre, it refers to fiction & nonfiction, including all its forms.	5
5023074635	repetition	The duplication, either exact or approximate, of any element of language, such as sound, word, phrase, clause, sentence, or grammatical pattern.	6
5023082536	rhetoric	From the Greek for "orator," this term describes the principles governing the art of writing effectively, eloquently, and persuasively.	7
5023090379	rhetorical modes	This flexible term describes the variety, the conventions, and the purposes of the major kinds of writing. The four most common are exposition, persuasive, description, and narrative.	8
5023110944	sarcasm	From the Greek meaning "to tear flesh", it involves bitter, caustic language that is meant to hurt or ridicule someone or something. It many use irony as a device.	9

Powered by Quizlet.com

AP Language Bootcamp: Prefixes, Roots, and Suffixes Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

7201815554	co, con, com	with, together, examples: compact, conjoin, co-conspirators	0
7201815555	log, logo	word, say, speech examples: dialogue, logo, prologue	1
7201815556	mono	one examples: monopoly, monologue, monocle	2
7201815557	-ic	quality, relation examples: generic, pessimistic, optimistic	3
7201815884	path, pathy	feeling, suffering examples: sympathy, antipathy, apathy, empathy	4
7201815885	fid, fide, feder	faith, trust examples: confident, fidelity, infidel	5
7201815886	para	beside examples paraphrase, paraprofessional, paramedic	6
7201816267	-al, -ial, -ical	quality, relation examples: structural, categorical, territorial	7
7201816268	-ful	having, giving, marked by examples: fanciful, deceitful	8
7201816627	ive, ative, itive	having the quality of examples: festive, cooperative, sensitive	9

Powered by Quizlet.com

AP Macroeconomics Unit 3 Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

8801193725	Aggregate	Sum total; a collection of separate things mixed together.	0
8801193726	Aggregate Demand (AD)	A schedule or curve that shows the total quantity demanded for all goods and services of a nation at various price levels in a given period of time. AD is downward sloping.	1
8801193727	Aggregate Supply	The total amount of goods and services that all firms in all the industries in a country will produce at various price levels in a given period of time. Short Run Aggregate Supply is upward sloping. (SRAS)	2
8801193728	Automatic Stabilizers	Built-in mechanisms in the tax code and transfer payment programs that increase government spending and reduce tax revenue automatically when aggregate demand decreases. They reduce government spending and collect more in tax revenues when aggregate demand increases.	3
8801193729	Transfer Payment	A payment made when no good or service is exchanged. Allowances are private transfer payments; social security checks are governmental transfer payments. Transfer payments are NOT included in GDP because they do NOT represent production.	4
8801193730	Budget Deficit	When a government spends more than it collects in tax revenues in a given year. The USA typically runs a budget deficit each year. G > T	5
8801193731	Budget Surplus	When a government collects more in tax revenues than it spends in a given year. T > G	6
8801193732	Classical Economic Theory	The view that an economy will self-correct from periods of economic shock if left alone. Also known as "laissez-faire" and derived from the thinking of Adam Smith, Thomas Malthus, and David Ricardo. Neoclassical theories are up-to-date versions of similar belief systems. Key idea that price levels and wages are fully flexible both upwards and downwards.	7
8801193733	Contractionary Fiscal Policy	A demand-side (AD) policy whereby government increases taxes or decreases its expenditures in order to reduce aggregate demand. Could be used in a period of high demand-pull inflation to bring down the inflation rate. T up and/or G down	8
8801193734	Cost-push inflation	Inflation resulting from a decrease in AS (from higher wage rates and raw material prices, such as the price of oil) and accompanied by a decrease in real output (real GDP) and decreases in employment. Also referred to as "stagflation" or "adverse/negative aggregate supply shock." AS decreases. The USA had cost-push inflation during the 1970's and early 1980's.	9
8801193735	Crowding-out Effect	The rise in interest rates and the resulting decrease in investment spending (I) in the economy caused by increased government borrowing in the loanable funds market. This occurs because of budget deficits, so the government must borrow money, which drives up real interest rates. The crowding-out effect is seen as a disadvantageous side effect of expansionary fiscal policy.	10
8801193736	Demand-Pull Inflation	Inflation resulting from an increase in aggregate demand without a corresponding increase in aggregate supply. AD is increasing.	11
8801193738	Disposable Income	The portion of income that an individual can choose to spend or save; after-tax income = take home pay. Disposable income is the main factor that drives both spending and savings decisions. DI = C + S. Where "C" is Consumption/Consumer Spending. "S" is savings.	12
8801193739	Economic Growth	An increase in the potential output of goods and services in a nation over time. PPC is shifting outward or could also be depicted as Long Run Aggregate Supply (LRAS) curve shifting to the right.	13
8801193740	Exchange rate	The price of one currency in terms of another currency, determined in the FOREX market (foreign exchange market). 1 dollar = 2 Euros.	14
8801193741	Expansionary Fiscal Policy	A demand-side (AD) policy whereby government decreases taxes or increases its expenditures in order to increase aggregate demand. Could be used in a period of high unemployment (recession) to increase national output (real GDP). T down, G up so AD increases.	15
8801193742	Fiscal Policy	Changes in government spending (G) and tax collections (T) implemented by government with the aim of either increasing or decreasing aggregate demand to achieve the macroeconomic objectives of full employment and price-level stability.	16
8801193743	Inflationary Gap	The difference between a nation's equilibrium level of output and its full employment level of output when the nation is overheating (producing beyond its full employment level).	17
8801193744	Inflationary spiral	The rapid increase in average price level result from demand-pull inflation leading to higher wages, causing cost-push inflation.	18
8801193747	Long Run Aggregate Supply (LRAS)	The level of output to which an economy will always return in the long run. The LRAS curves intersects the horizontal axis at the full employment or potential level of output. "at the full-employment level of real GDP"	19
8801193748	Long Run	The period of time over which the wage rate and price level of inputs in a nation are flexible. In the long run, any changes in AD are cancelled out due to the flexibility of wages and prices and an economy will return to its full employment level of output. Sometimes referred to as the "flexible wage period."	20
8801193749	Short Run Aggregate Supply (SRAS)	Positive relationship between the aggregate amount of GDP produced and the price level in an economy in the short run, when it is presumed that prices of goods are flexible but wage rates are fixed.	21
8801193750	Macroeconomic Equilibrium	The level of output at which a nation is producing at any particular period of time. May be below its full employment level (if the economy is in recession) or beyond its full employment level (if the economy is overheating). In the picture, short-run equilibrium is at P1 and Y1	22
8801193751	Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)	The fraction of any change in income spent on domestically produced goods and services; equal to the change in consumption divided by the change in disposable income.	23
8801193752	Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS)	The fraction of any change in income that is saved; equal to the change in savings divided by the change in disposable income.	24
8801193766	MPC + MPS = 1	The fraction of an increase in disposable income that is spent (MPC) plus the fraction that is saved (MPS) must equal 1.	25
8801193753	Multiplier Effect	The increase in total spending in an economy resulting from an initial injection of new spending. The size of the multiplier effect depends upon the spending multiplier. An effect in economics in which an increase in spending produces an increase in national income and consumption greater than the initial amount spent.	26
8801193754	Spending multiplier	= 1/(1-MPC) or 1/MPS. This tells you how much total spending an initial interjection of spending in the economy will generate. For example, if the MPC = .8 and the government spends $100 million, then the total increase in spending in the economy = $100 x 5 = $500 million.	27
8801193757	Recessionary Gap	The difference between an economy's equilibrium level of output and its full employment level of output when an economy is below full-employment.	28
8801193758	Self-correction	The idea that an economy producing at an equilibrium level of output that is below or above its full employment level will return on its own to it full employment level if left to its own devices. Requires fully flexible wages and prices and is associated with classical economic views.	29
8801193759	Stagflation	A macroeconomic situation in which both inflation and unemployment increase. Caused by a negative supply shock (i.e., Aggregate Supply decreases).	30
8801193760	Sticky wage and price model	The short-run Aggregate-Supply Curve is sometimes referred to as the "sticky wage and price model," because workers' wage demands take time to adjust to changes in the overall price level, and therefore, in the short-run an economy may produce well below or beyond its full employment level of output.	31
8801193761	Supply Shock	Anything that leads to a sudden, unexpected change in aggregate supply. Can be negative (decreases in AS) or positive (increases in AS). May include a change in energy prices, wages, or business taxes, or may result from a natural disaster or a new discovery of important resources.	32
8801193762	Wealth	An important determinant of consumption. Wealth is the total value of a household's assets minus all its liabilities.	33
8801193763	Real Balances Effect = Wealth Effect	One of the reasons the aggregate demand curve slopes downward: The tendency for increases in price level to lower the real value (or purchasing power) of financial assets with fixed money value and, as a result, to reduce total spending and real output. The idea that any wealth that you may have in the form of a cushion or securities becomes less valuable as prices rises because higher prices reduce real spending power, prices and output are negatively related.	34
8801193764	Interest Rate Effect	if the average price level rises, consumers and firms might need to borrow more money for spending and capital investment, which increases the interest rate and delays current consumption. Reduces current consumption of domestic products and the price level rises. One of the reasons why AD is downward sloping.	35
8801193765	Foreign Trade Effect	When U.S. price level increases, foreign buyers purchase fewer U.S. goods and Americans buy more foreign goods. Exports fall and imports rise causing real GDP demanded to decrease. One of the reasons why AD is downward sloping.	36
8801193767	2 Tools of Fiscal Policy	Federal Government engages in fiscal policy. Tool # 1 = Government Spending. Tool # 2 = Personal Income Taxes.	37

Powered by Quizlet.com

Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

Powered by Quizlet.com

AP World History Dates Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

6697801924	8000 BCE- 600 CE	Period 1: Technological and Environmental Transformations	0
6697801925	8000 B.C.E.	Beginnings of agriculture	1
6697801926	3000 B.C.E.	Beginnings of Bronze Age - Early Civilizations	2
6697801927	1300 B.C.E.	Iron Age	3
6697801928	600 BCE - 600 CE	Period 2: Organization and Reorganization of Human Societies	4
6697801929	6th century B.C.E.	Life of Buddha, Confucius, Lao Tsu (beginnings of Confucianism, Buddhism, Taosim)	5
6697801930	5th C B.C.E.	Greek Golden Age - philosophers.	6
6697801931	323 B.C.E.	Alexander the Great	7
6697801932	221 B.C.E.	Qin unified China	8
6697801933	32 C.E.	Beginnings of Christianity	9
6697801934	180 C.E.	end of Pax Romana	10
6697801935	220 C.E.	end of Han Dynasty	11
6697801936	333	Roman capital moved to Constantinople	12
6697801937	4th century C.E.	Beginning of Trans-Saharan Trade Routes	13
6697801938	476	Fall of Rome	14
6697801939	527	Justinian rule of Byzantine Empire	15
6697801940	600 CE -1450	Period 3: Regional and Transregional Interactions	16
6697801941	622	Founding of Islam	17
6697801942	732	Battle of Tours (end of Muslim move into France)	18
6697801943	1054	Great Schism in Christian Church (Roman Catholic & Eastern Orthodox)	19
6697801944	1095	1st Crusade	20
6697801945	1258	Mongols sack Baghdad	21
6697801946	1271-1295	Marco Polo travels	22
6697801947	1324	Mansa Musa's pilgrimage	23
6697801948	1325-1349	travels of Ibn Battuta	24
6697801949	1347-1348	Bubonic plague in Europe	25
6697801950	1433	end of Zheng He's voyages/Rise of Ottomans	26
6697801951	1450 CE - 1750	Period 4: Global Interactions	27
6697801952	1453	Ottomans capture Constantinople	28
6697801953	1488	Dias rounded Cape of Good Hope	29
6697801954	1492	Columbus sailed the ocean blue/ Reconquista of Spain	30
6697801955	1502	1st Slaves to Americas	31
6697801956	1517	Martin Luther/95 theses	32
6697801957	1521	Cortez conquered the Aztecs	33
6697801958	1533	Pizarro toppled the Inca	34
6697801959	1618-1648	30 years war	35
6697801960	1689	Glorious Revolution/English Bill of Rights	36
6697801961	1750 CE - 1900	Period 5: Industrialization and Global Integration	37
6697801962	1750-1914	Industrial Revolution	38
6697801963	1756-1763	7 Year's War/French and Indian War	39
6697801964	1776	American Revolution/Smith writes Wealth of Nations	40
6697801965	1789	French Revolution	41
6697801966	1804	Haitian independence	42
6697801967	1815	Congress of Vienna	43
6697801968	1820s	Independence in Latin America	44
6697801969	1839	1st opium war in China	45
6697801970	1848	European revolutions/Marx & Engles write Communist Manifesto	46
6697801971	1853	Commodore Perry opens Japan	47
6697801972	1857	Sepoy Mutiny	48
6697801973	1861	end of Russian serfdom/Italian unification	49
6697801974	1863	Emancipation Proclamation in US	50
6697801975	1871	German unification	51
6697801976	1885	Berlin Conference - division of Africa	52
6697801977	1898	Spanish-American War - US acquires Philippines, Cuba, Guam, & Puerto Rico	53
6697801978	1899	Boer War-British in control of South Africa	54
6697801979	1900 CE - Present	Period 6: Accelerating Global Change and Realignments	55
6697801980	1905	Russo-Japanese war	56
6697801981	1910-1920	Mexican Revolution	57
6697801982	1911	Chinese Revolution	58
6697801983	1914-1918	WWI	59
6697801984	1917	Russian Revolution	60
6697801985	1919	Treaty of Versailles-end of WWI	61
6697801986	1929	stock market crash	62
6697801987	1931	Japanese invasion of Manchuria	63
6697801988	1935	Italian invasion of Ethiopia	64
6697801989	1939	German blitzkrieg in Poland	65
6697801990	1941	Pearl Harbor, entry of US into WWII	66
6697801991	1945	end of WWII	67
6697801992	1947	independence & partition of India	68
6697801993	1948	birth of Israel	69
6697801994	1949	Chinese Communist Revolution	70
6697801995	1950-1953	Korean War	71
6697801996	1954	Vietnamese defeat French at Dien Bien Phu	72
6697801997	1956	de-Stalinization/nationalization of Suez Canal	73
6697801998	1959	Cuban Revolution	74
6697801999	1962	Cuban missile crisis	75
6697802000	1967	6-day war/Chinese Cultural Revolution	76
6697802001	1973	Yom Kippur war	77
6697802002	1979	Iranian Revolution	78
6697802003	1987	1st Palestinian Intifada	79
6697802004	1989	Tiananmen Square/fall of Berlin Wall	80
6697802005	1991	fall of USSR/1st Gulf war	81
6697802006	1994	genocide in Rwanda/1st all race elections in S. Africa	82
6697802007	2001	9/11 Attacks	83

Powered by Quizlet.com

AP Language Literary Terms Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

4571626154	Alliteration	Language device that repeats consonant or vowel sounds in successive or closely associated syllables	0
4571631724	Allusion	A reference to history or literature	1
4571636136	Analogy	A comparison of two things, alike in certain aspects, a simile is an expressed analogy; a metaphor is an implied one	2
4571736330	Anaphora	One of the language devices of repetition that repeats the same expression (word or words) at the beginning of two or more lines, clauses, or sentences	3
4571760742	Figurative Language	not intended to carry literal meaning, usually meant to be imaginative or vivid: apostrophe, irony, metaphor, metonomy, oxymoron, paradox, personification, simile, synecdoche and understatement	4
4571756514	Anecdote	A brief narrative that focuses on a particular incident or event	5
4571759505	Antecedent	The word, phrase or clause to which a pronoun refers.	6
4571784410	Antithesis	A balancing of one term against another for emphasis; "now high, now low." Strongly contrasting word, clauses, or ideas balanced against one another. "They promised freedom and provided slavery."	7
4571790627	Asyndeton	Omission of the conjunctions that ordinarily join coordinate words or clauses. "I came, I saw, I conquered."	8
4571795656	Chiasmus	Two corresponding pairs arranged not in parallels (a-b-b-a); from shape of the Greek letter chi (X)	9
4571798961	Connotation	The non-literal, associative meaning of a word; implied meaning; the emotional implications that words may carry	10
4571801497	Deductive reasoning	Reasoning in which a conclusion is reached by stating a general principle and then applying that principle to a specific case (The sun rises every morning; therefore, the sun will rise on Tuesday morning.)	11
4571819619	Denotation	The strict, literal, dictionary definition of a word	12
4571820928	Diction	Writers word choice, especially with regard to their correctness, clearness, or effectiveness (connotation and denotation)	13
4571823687	Ellipsis	The omission of a word or several words for a complete construction that is still understandable	14
4571797479	Loose Sentence	a type of sentence: independent clause comes first, followed by dependent grammatical units, a basic sentence with a string of details. The effect is usually informal, relaxed. and conversational	15
4571825718	Ethos	An appeal based on the character of the speaker. An ethos-driven document relies on the reputation of the author	16
4571827452	Euphemism	Indirectness that replaces directness of a statement, usually in an effort to avoid offensive bluntness in some subject involving delicacy or taboo. ex. "Passed away" for "died"	17
4571772243	Hyperbole	overstatement, using deliberate exageration	18
4571775069	Idiom	an expression in a given language that cannot be understood from the literal meaning of the words in the expression, or a regional speech or dialect	19
4571777281	Imagery	use of sensory details or figurative language used to describe, arouse emotion, or represent abstractions	20
4571829397	Paradox	a statement that appears to be self contradictory or opposed to common sense, but upon closer inspection, contains some degree of truth or validity	21
4571827708	Oxymoron	figurative language wherein the author groups apparently contradictory terms to suggest truth or validity	22
4571780402	Inductive reasoning	deriving general principles from particular facts or instances (Specific -> General)	23
4571825350	Motif	Recurrent patterns in a work, images words, objects, phrases or actions that tend to unify the work	24
4571822810	Mood	emotional-the prevailing atmosphere or emotional aura of a work that the author creates. The setting, tone and events of the work have an effect on the mood.	25
4571804517	Metaphor	an analogy identifying one object with another without using "like" or "as"	26
4571818740	Metonomy	naming an object by substitution a term closely associated with the word in mind	27
4571791652	Juxtaposition	placing two ideas or characters side by side for comparison or contrast	28
4571793756	Logos	an appeal based on logic or reason. Documents distributed by companies or corporations are logos-driven. Scholarly documents are also often logos-driven	29
4571789964	Jargon	the specialized language or vocabulary of a particular group or prefession	30
4571782645	Irony	The contrast between what a stated explicitly and what is really meant; recognition of reality different from appearance	31
4571856735	Parallellism	The grammatical or rhetorical framing of words, phrases, sentences,or paragraphs to give structural similarity; can involve repetition of a grammatical element such as add emphasis or organization, or simply provide musical rhythm.	32
4571861241	Synesthesia	description of one kind of sensation in terms of another. In everyday language, we find many examples of synesthesia such as the frequently used adjective "cool". This word is generally associated with temperature. However, in casual conversations, ne can hear phrases like "cool dress" , "cool colors" or "you are looking cool" wherein the visual sensation is blended with the sense of touch. Moreover, we commonly hear phrases like "loud colors", "frozen silence" and "warm colors", "bitter cold" etc.	33
4571868361	Parody	A humorous imitation of a serious work	34
4571874394	Tone	describes the author's attitude toward his or her material, the audience, or both	35
4571882288	Zuegma	a figure of speech in which a word applies to two others in different senses or to two others of which it semantically suits. You forget what you want to remember and remember what you want to forget	36
4571876748	Personification	Figure that endows animals, ideas, abstractions, and inanimate object with human form.	37
4571887634	Rhetorical modes	A way or a method of presenting a subject through writing or speech; the variety, the conventions, and the purpose of the major kinds of writing. Examples of modes: argument, cause/effect, classification, description, compare/contrast, narration, extended definition...	38
4571893747	Rhetorical Question	Asking a question, not for the purpose of eliciting an answer, but for the purpose of asserting or denying something	39
4571896602	Satire	A work that targets human vices and follies or social institutions and conventions for reform or ridicule; often humorous, is thought provoking and insightful about the human condition	40
4571915759	Syllogism	A three-part deductive argument in which a conclusion is based on a major premise and a minor premise (All men are mortal; Socrates is a man: therefore, Socrates is mortal.)	41
4571921004	Symbolism	Use of one object to represent or suggest another	42
4571924004	Synecdoche	Figurative language used in which a part signifies the whole or whole signifies the part. Calling a sailor a "hand: or the police "the law."	43
4571884583	Rhetoric	From the Greek word "orator," this term describes the principles governing the art of writing effectively, eloquently, and persuasively	44
4571879323	Polysyndeton	The repetition of conjunction in close succession for rhetorical effect. "Here and there and everywhere"	45
4571876070	Understatement	Deliberately expresses an idea as less important than it actually is, either for ironic emphasis or for politeness and tact. "the 1906 earthquake interrupted business somewhat in the downtown area."	46
4571869377	Periodic Sentence	Presents it central meaning in a main clause at the end; details are placed before the basic statement; the effect is to add emphasis, structural variety, or elements of surprise. "Suddenly, for no apparent reason, the lovable cat scratched Sally."	47

Powered by Quizlet.com

Lamb: AP Language Review Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images

5951670389	charlotte perkins gulman	who wrote the yellow wallpaper	0
5951700064	america is singing	famous walt whitman poem	1
5951702549	lenore	name of the woman in "the raven"	2
5951706163	longfellow	who's wife passed away due to a miscarriage	3
5951708516	self reliance	which essay said "envious ignorance..."	4
5951713649	cooper	who attended yale and then got expelled	5
5951717615	the last of the mohicans	one of the stories of leatherstocking tales	6
5951731806	poe	who was an alcoholic, gambler, etc.	7
5951737397	thoreau	good friend of emerson	8
5951741216	irving	who wrote the devil and tom walker	9
5951743728	leaves of grass	what was the name of the walt whitman's book of poetry	10
5951749224	walden	what was one of henry thoreau's famous essay	11
5951755972	transcendentalism	name of social movement in reaction to rationalism	12
5951759924	walt whitman	who wrote "a sight in camp in the daybreak gray and dim"	13
5951773368	the raven	what was poe's most famous poem	14
5951780808	emily dickinson	who was isolated and rather write letters	15
5951785496	emerson	who founded transcendentalism club	16
5951791302	nathaniel hawthorne	who wrote dr heidegger's experiment	17
5951799216	the chariot	what is one of emily dickinson's famous poem	18
5951803251	barber	what was the principal occupation of a preacher in the scarlet letter	19
5951810849	a few with religious zeal	why were there few positions in boston	20
5951813634	anything for a wedding	what was hester not allowed to hem for	21
5951818144	meteor	what was the natural phenomenon symbolizes sin and virtue	22
5951825511	3	how many hours does hester stand on the scaffold	23
5951829850	whipping, fasting, etc.	what was the punishments methods did dimmesdale do to himself	24
5951837624	indians	with whom was chillingsworth live with before going to boston	25
5951853188	she left town with a lot of money	what happen to pearl at the end of the story	26
5951861007	able	A stands for what in regard to hester	27
5951865634	chillingworth	who does "leech" refer to	28
5951870856	plucked off a rosebush	according to pearl who is her maker	29
5951879445	needle work	how hester earn a living	30
5951881867	physician	what does chillingworth pretend to be	31
5951886368	hand over heart	what gesture does dimmesdale do throughout the book	32
5951935098	severity of law and authority	what does the prison door represent in scarlet letter	33
5951939674	17 century	what time frame was the scarlet letter in	34
5951952362	bowdoin college	what was the college hawthorne attended	35
5951958328	salem	what city was hawthorne from	36
5951966100	saved - elect damned - unreginerate	what were the saved called and damned called	37
5951973745	innoculation	what was the method to deal with smallpox	38
5951975772	deism	what were the natural laws through God given power and religion	39
5951979506	rationalism	what was the belief that human beings arrive at the truth using reason	40
5951983769	johnathan edwards	who was the reverend to put fear in speech	41
5951992577	adam and eve sin	eternity damned because of ...	42
5951995468	aphorism	witty	43
5951998759	persecution	what did the puritans suffer in england	44
5952002922	patrick henry	who wrote the speech to virginia convention	45
5952011081	ben franklin	who wrote the masterpiece of age of reason	46
5952014253	Bible	what was the model for puritans writing	47

Class Notes

Social Science

Math

Science

Fine Arts

Test Prep

Textbook Notes

Members Only

Forum

Blogs

Textbook Request

Biochemistry Flashcards

Introduction to Medical Billing & Coding Flashcards

Medical Billing and Coding Final Flashcards

AP Language - Week Four Flashcards

AP Language Bootcamp: Prefixes, Roots, and Suffixes Flashcards

AP Macroeconomics Unit 3 Flashcards

Flashcards

AP World History Dates Flashcards

AP Language Literary Terms Flashcards

Lamb: AP Language Review Flashcards

Pages

Need Help?

Need Notes?

About Course-Notes.Org

You are here

Pages

Need Help?

Need Notes?

About Course-Notes.Org