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Combo with Campbell Biology 9th Edition - Chapter 21 and 1 other Flashcards

678515624	Genomics	The study of whole sets of genes and their interactions within a species, as well as genome comparisons between species	0
678515625	Bioinformatic	The use of computers, software, and mathematical models to process and integrate biological information from large data sets	1
678515626	linkage map	the order of genes and other inherited markers in the genome and the relative distances between then -more often to cross over and have variation if genes are far away because they have more opportunity and time to do so	2
678515627	Genome shotgun approach	Skip the linkage mapping and physical mapping stages and starts directly with the sequencing of DNA fragments from randomly	3
678515628	homeobox	one of various similar homeotic genes that are involved in bodily segmentation during embryonic development	4
678515629	metagenomics	DNA from a group of species is collected from an environmental sample and sequenced	5
678515630	gene annotation	The identification of protein coding genes within DNA sequences in a database	6
678515631	proteomics	the branch of genetics that studies the full set of proteins encoded by a genome	7
678515632	pseudogenes	A DNA segment very similar to a real gene but which does not yield a functional product; a gene that has become inactivated in a particular species because of mutation.	8
678515634	repetitive DNA	Nucleotide sequences, usually noncoding, that are present in many copies in a eukaryotic genome. The repeated units may be short and arranged tandemly (in series) or long and dispersed in the genome.	9
678515637	transposable elements	Genetic element that has the ability to move (transpose) from one site on a chromosome to another.	10
678515639	simple sequence DNA	contains many copies of tandemly repeated short sequences	11
678515641	short tandem repeats	(STR) simple sequence DNA containing multiple tandemly repeated units of two to five nucleotides. variations in STRs act as genetic markers in STR analysis, used to prepare genetic profiles	12
678515643	multi gene families	group of genes that encode related products	13
678515645	evo devo	Evolutionary developmental biology; a field of biology that compares developmental processes of different multicellular organisms to understand how these processes have evolved and how changes can modify existing organismal features or lead to new ones.	14
678515647	Cytogentic Maps	provides the starting point for more detailed mapping of the human genome	15
678515649	Dideoxy Chain Termination	o Cut the DNA from many copies of an entire chromosome into overlapping fragments short enough for sequencing o Clone the fragments in plasmid or phage vectors o Sequence each fragment o Order the sequence into one overall sequence with computer software	16
678515651	Sequencing by Synthesis	o Resulted in massive increases in speed and decreases in the cost of sequencing entire genome o Made cloning in the shotgun approach unnecessary	17
678515653	Reverse Genetics	using DNA sequence, geneticists can study genes directly, without having to infer genotype from phenotype as in classical genetics	18
678515654	Bioinformatics	The use of computers, software, and mathematical models to process and integrate biological information from large data sets	19
678515655	Proteomic	The systematic study of the full protein sets (proteomes) encoded by genomes	20
678515656	What do proteins do?	Proteins actually carry out most of the activities of the cells; we must study when and where protein are produced in an organism and networks	21
678515657	Gene Size	- Prokaryotes smaller genomes than eukaryotes -Eukaryotes, no relationship between genome size and phenotype see corn/ mouse/giant panda	22
678515658	Number of Genes	-Prokaryotes 1.5-7.5k vs. Eukaryotes 5-40k -Lower than expected in E considering genome size in human thought there would be 50-100k genes but there are less than 21k -Get more bang for buck b/c of alternative splicing, post translational modification of proteins regulation by mRNA etc.	23
678515659	Gene Density	-Prokaryotes have a greater density than eukaryotes -Mammals have the lowest gene density so far -Average Prokaryotic gene is 1000bp -Average Eukaryotic gene is 27,000bp- lots of introns in addition - more complex regulatory sequences genes interspersed w/ vast amount of non-protein coding regions	24
678515660	Pseudogene	A DNA segment very similar to a real gene but which does not yield a functional product; a DNA segment that formerly functioned as a gene but has become inactivated in a particular species because of mutation.	25
678515661	Repetitive DNA	Nucleotide sequences, usually noncoding, that are present in many copies in a eukaryotic genome. The repeated units may be short and arranged tandemly (in series) or long and dispersed in the genome.	26
678515662	Transposable elements	A segment of DNA that can move within the genome of a cell by means of a DNA or RNA intermediate; also called a transposable genetic element	27
678515663	Transposons	A segment of DNA that can move within the genome of a cell by means of a DNA or RNA intermediate; also called a transposable genetic element. o "cut-and-paste"; removes the element from the original site o copy-and-paste"; leaves behind o Both require an enzyme called transposase	28
678515664	Retrotransposons	A transposable element that moves within a genome by means of an RNA intermediate, a transcript of the retrotransposon DNA. o always leave a copy at the original site during transposition	29
678515665	Short tandem repeat (STR)	Simple sequence DNA containing multiple tandemly repeated units of two to five nucleotides. Variations in STRs act as genetic markers in STR analysis, used to prepare genetic profiles.	30
678515666	Multigene Families	A collection of genes with similar or identical sequences, presumably of common origin	31
678515667	Identical Gene Families	-Genes for the three largest rRNA molecules; transcribed from a single transcription unit that is repeated tandemly hundreds to thousands of times in one several clusters in the genome of a multicellular eukaryote - Helps makes millions of ribosomes needed for active protein synthesis	32
678515668	Non Identical Multigene Families	Nonidentical gene are two related families of genes that encode globin a group of proteins that include a and b polypeptide subunits of hemoglobin	33

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Campbell Biology 9th Edition - Chapter 21 Flashcards

Genomes and Their Evolution

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1200530927	genomics	the branch of genetics that studies organisms in terms of their genomes (their full DNA sequences)	0
1200530928	bioinformatics	the use of computers, software, and mathematical models to process and integrate biological information from large data sets.	1
1200530929	human genome project	An international collaborative effort to map and sequence the DNA of the entire human genome.	2
1200530930	linkage map	A genetic map based on the frequencies of recombination between markers during crossing over of homologous chromosomes.	3
1200530931	physical map	A genetic map in which the actual physical distances between genes or other genetic markers are expressed, usually as the number of base pairs along the DNA.	4
1200530932	metagenomics	DNA from a group of species is collected from an environmental sample and sequenced	5
1200530933	gene annotation	The identification of protein coding genes within DNA sequences in a database	6
1200530934	proteomics	the branch of genetics that studies the full set of proteins encoded by a genome	7
1200530935	pseudogenes	A DNA segment very similar to a real gene but which does not yield a functional product; a gene that has become inactivated in a particular species because of mutation.	8
1200530936	repetitive DNA	Nucleotide sequences, usually noncoding, that are present in many copies in a eukaryotic genome. The repeated units may be short and arranged tandemly (in series) or long and dispersed in the genome.	9
1200530937	transposons	(jumping genes) short strands of DNA capable of moving from one location to another within a cell's genetic material	10
1200530938	retrotransposons	Transposable elements that move within a genome by means of an RNA intermediate, a transcript of the retrotransposon DNA.	11
1200530939	transposable elements	Genetic element that has the ability to move (transpose) from one site on a chromosome to another.	12
1200530940	simple sequence DNA	contains many copies of tandemly repeated short sequences	13
1200530941	short tandem repeats	(STR) simple sequence DNA containing multiple tandemly repeated units of two to five nucleotides. variations in STRs act as genetic markers in STR analysis, used to prepare genetic profiles	14
1200530942	multi gene families	group of genes that encode related products	15
1200530943	evo devo	Evolutionary developmental biology; a field of biology that compares developmental processes of different multicellular organisms to understand how these processes have evolved and how changes can modify existing organismal features or lead to new ones.	16
1200530944	homeobox	one of various similar homeotic genes that are involved in bodily segmentation during embryonic development	17

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Dhimmi Flashcards

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2536038385	Who	Muslims and Christians	0
2536039662	What	Religious laws that protected Jews	1
2536041527	Where	Islamic empire	2
2536044127	When	912- 961 CE	3
2536044865	Significance	religious tolerance was a strategy to gain power so that people would pay their taxes and be compliant to administration	4

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Campbell Biology; Tenth Edition; Chapter 20; DNA Tools and Biotechnology Flashcards

Key Concepts:

• DNA sequencing and DNA cloning are valuable tools for genetic engineering and biological inquiry
• Biologists use DNA technology to study gene expression and function
• Cloning organisms and stem cells are useful for basic research and other applications
• The practical applications of DNA-based biotechnology affects our lives in many ways

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1827386870	Biotechnology	the manipulation of organisms or their components to produce useful products	0
1827386871	Cloning Vector	in genetic engineering, a DNA molecule that can carry foreign DNA into a host cell and replicate there; cloning vectors include plasmids and bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs), which move recombinant DNA from a test tube back into a cell, and viruses that transfer recombinant DNA by infection	1
1827386872	Complementary DNA (cDNA)	a double-stranded DNA molecule made in vitro using mRNA as a template and the enzymes reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase; a cDNA molecule corresponds to the exons of a gene	2
1828513187	DNA Cloning	the production of multiple copies of a specific DNA segment	3
1828513188	DNA Ligase	a linking enzyme essential for DNA replication; catalyzes the covalent bonding of the 3′ end of one DNA fragment (such as an Okazaki fragment) to the 5′ end of another DNA fragment (such as a growing DNA chain)	4
1828513189	DNA Microarray Assay	a method to detect and measure the expression of thousands of genes at one time; tiny amounts of a large number of single-stranded DNA fragments representing different genes are fixed to a glass slide and tested for hybridization with samples of labeled cDNA	5
1828513190	DNA Sequencing	determining the complete nucleotide sequence of a gene or DNA segment	6
1828513191	DNA Technology	techniques for sequencing and manipulating DNA	7
1828513192	Electroporation	a technique to introduce recombinant DNA into cells by applying a brief electrical pulse to a solution containing the cells; the pulse creates temporary holes in the cells' plasma membranes, through which DNA can enter	8
1828513193	Expression Vector	a cloning vector that contains a highly active bacterial promoter just upstream of a restriction site where a eukaryotic gene can be inserted, allowing the gene to be expressed in a bacterial cell; expression vectors are also available that have been genetically engineered for use in specific types of eukaryotic cells	9
1828513194	Gel Electrophoresis	a technique for separating nucleic acids or proteins on the basis of their size and electrical charge, both of which affect their rate of movement through an electric field in a gel made of agarose or another polymer	10
1828513195	Gene Cloning	the production of multiple copies of a gene	11
1828513196	Gene Therapy	the introduction of genes into an afflicted individual for therapeutic purposes	12
1828513197	Genetic Engineering	the direct manipulation of genes for practical purposes	13
1828513198	Genetic Profile	an individual's unique set of genetic markers, detected most often today by PCR or, previously, by electrophoresis and nucleic acid probes	14
1828513199	Genetically Modified (GM) Organism	an organism that has acquired one or more genes by artificial means; also called a transgenic organism	15
1828513200	Genome-Wide Association Study	a large-scale analysis of the genomes of many people having a certain phenotype or disease, with the aim of finding genetic markers that correlate with that phenotype or disease	16
1828513201	In Situ Hybridization	a technique using nucleic acid hybridization with a labeled probe to detect the location of a specific mRNA in an intact organism	17
1828513202	In Vitro Mutagenesis	a technique used to discover the function of a gene by cloning it, introducing specific changes into the cloned gene's sequence, reinserting the mutated gene into a cell, and studying the phenotype of the mutant	18
1828513203	Nucleic Acid Hybridization	the base pairing of one strand of a nucleic acid to the complementary sequence on a strand from another nucleic acid molecule	19
1828513204	Nucleic Acid Probe	in DNA technology, a labeled single-stranded nucleic acid molecule used to locate a specific nucleotide sequence in a nucleic acid sample; molecules of the probe hydrogen-bond to the complementary sequence wherever it occurs; radioactive, fluorescent, or other labeling of the probe allows its location to be detected	20
1828513205	Plasmid	a small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that carries accessory genes separate from those of a bacterial chromosome; in DNA cloning, plasmids are used as vectors carrying up to about 10,000 base pairs (10 kb) of DNA; plasmids are also found in some eukaryotes, such as yeasts	21
1828513206	Pluripotent	describing a cell that can give rise to many, but not all, parts of an organism	22
1828513207	Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)	a technique for amplifying DNA in vitro by incubating it with specific primers, a heat-resistant DNA polymerase, and nucleotides	23
1828513208	Recombinant DNA	a DNA molecule made in vitro with segments from different sources	24
1828513209	Restriction Enzyme	an endonuclease (type of enzyme) that recognizes and cuts DNA molecules foreign to a bacterium (such as phage genomes); the enzyme cuts at specific nucleotide sequences (restriction sites)	25
1828513210	Restriction Fragment	a DNA segment that results from the cutting of DNA by a restriction enzyme	26
1828513211	Restriction Site	a specific sequence on a DNA strand that is recognized and cut by a restriction enzyme	27
1828513212	Reverse Transcriptase-Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR)	a technique for determining expression of a particular gene; it uses reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase to synthesize cDNA from all the mRNA in a sample and then subjects the cDNA to PCR amplification using primers specific for the gene of interest	28
1828513213	RNA Interference (RNAi)	a mechanism for silencing the expression of specific genes; in RNAi, double-stranded RNA molecules that match the sequence of a particular gene are processed into siRNAs that either block translation or trigger the degradation of the gene's messenger RNA; this happens naturally in some cells, and can be carried out in laboratory experiments as well	29
1828513214	Short Tandem Repeat (STR)	simple sequence DNA containing multiple tandemly repeated units of two to five nucleotides; variations in STRs act as genetic markers in STR analysis, used to prepare genetic profiles	30
1828513215	Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)	a single base-pair site in a genome where nucleotide variation is found in at least 1% of the population	31
1828513216	Totipotent	describing a cell that can give rise to all parts of the embryo and adult, as well as extraembryonic membranes in species that have them	32
1870581599	Gene cloning is crucial to any application involving one gene because __________. a. naturally occurring DNA molecules are very long and contain many genes b. it provides a means to produce large quantities of its protein product c. genes occupy only a small proportion of the chromosomal DNA in eukaryotes, the rest being noncoding nucleotide sequences d. it provides a means to produce many copies of a gene in a short period of time e. All of the listed responses are correct.	All of the listed responses are correct. Because a typical gene is usually a very small part of the total DNA of a cell, scientists use gene cloning procedures to amplify specific genes for further genetic analysis, for recombinant applications, and as a means to generate large quantities of their protein products for human use.	33
1870581600	The expression of the PAX-6 gene when vertebrate and fruit fly versions of the gene are exchanged between these animal groups illustrates __________. a. that the same gene can have very different functions in different types of animals b. that some coding genes have products other than proteins in different types of animals c. the common ancestry in the evolution of these animal groups d. that the mechanisms of gene expression vary among different animal groups e. that a gene that plays a major role in the development of one type of organism often has a reduced role in another	the common ancestry in the evolution of these animal groups Regardless of the version of the PAX-6 gene that is being expressed in a vertebrate or fruit fly, the gene product triggers the formation of the appropriate type of eye for that animal group, thus reflecting the common ancestry between all animal groups.	34
1870581601	Which of the following enzymes is key to the automation of PCR (polymerase chain reactions)? a. DNA ligase b. Taq polymerase c. reverse transcriptase d. restriction enzyme e. human DNA polymerase	Taq polymerase Taq polymerase is a heat-stable DNA polymerase that was isolated from the hot spring bacterium Thermus aquaticus. It is ideal for PCR because it is not denatured by the heat applied to separate DNA strands in PCR and can polymerize DNA from short, single-stranded DNA primers that are complementary to sequences at each end of the DNA sequence to be amplified.	35
1870581602	Bacteria use restriction enzymes to __________. a. synthesize DNA b. synthesize RNA c. synthesize protein d. destroy foreign protein e. destroy foreign DNA	destroy foreign DNA Restriction enzymes are used to protect bacteria against intruding DNA from other organisms.	36
1870581603	An enzyme that cuts DNA at a symmetrical sequence of bases is called __________. a. reverse transcriptase b. a restriction enzyme c. cDNA d. palindrome e. ligase	a restriction enzyme Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a limited number of specific locations, each of which contains a recognition sequence, or restriction site.	37
1870581604	When a typical restriction enzyme cuts a DNA molecule, the cuts are staggered so that the DNA fragments have single-stranded ends. This is important in recombinant DNA work because __________. a. it allows a cell to recognize fragments produced by the enzyme b. the single-stranded ends serve as starting points for DNA replication c. the fragments will bond to other fragments with complementary single-stranded ends d. it enables researchers to use the fragments as introns e. only single-stranded DNA segments can code for proteins	the fragments will bond to other fragments with complementary single-stranded ends The sticky ends of restriction fragments allow hydrogen bonding with complementary single-stranded stretches on other DNA molecules cut with the same enzyme.	38
1870581605	In genetic engineering, sticky end refers to __________. a. a technique for finding a gene of interest within a nucleus without destroying the cell b. the ability of plasmids to stick to a bacterial cell wall and thus be taken up into the bacterium c. short bits of single-stranded DNA left at the end of DNA molecules cut by restriction enzymes d. the site on mRNA that sticks to the DNA during transcription e. None of the listed responses is correct.	short bits of single-stranded DNA left at the end of DNA molecules cut by restriction enzymes The sticky ends of restriction fragments allow hydrogen bonding with complementary single-stranded stretches on other DNA molecules cut with the same enzyme.	39
1870581606	Which of the following enzymes could seal a nick in one strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule by creating a sugar-phosphate bond between the adjacent, unjoined nucleotides? a. DNA ligase b. reverse transcriptase c. restriction enzyme d. terminator enzyme e. DNA polymerase	DNA ligase DNA ligase is a fundamental tool in recombinant DNA technology.	40
1870581607	Which of the following is required for the production of recombinant DNA with long-term stability? a. hydrogen bonding b. DNA ligase c. reverse transcriptase d. DNA polymerase e. heat-resistant DNA polymerase	DNA ligase DNA ligase catalyzes the formation of covalent bonds in the sugar-phosphate backbone, cementing the linkage between nucleic acids having complementary sticky ends.	41
1870581608	What two enzymes are needed to produce recombinant DNA? a. a restriction enzyme and a topoisomerase b. a restriction enzyme and a ligase c. a restriction enzyme and a polymerase d. a polymerase and a ligase e. a polymerase and a topoisomerase	a restriction enzyme and a ligase Recombinant DNA technology involves combining genes from two sources, such as different species, into a single molecule. Restriction enzymes cut the segments, and ligase seals the pieces in place.	42
1870581609	In recombinant DNA technology, the term vector refers to __________. a. the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments b. the sticky ends of a DNA fragment c. a heat-resistant DNA polymerase d. a plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into a living cell e. a DNA probe used to locate a particular gene	a plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into a living cell A cloning vector is a DNA molecule that can carry foreign DNA into a cell and replicate there.	43
1870581610	Which arrangement of the following four enzymes represents the order in which they would be used in a typical gene-cloning experiment resulting in the insertion of a cDNA into a bacterial plasmid? Begin with the gene's mRNA transcript. a. restriction enzyme, reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase b. restriction enzyme, DNA ligase, reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase c. reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, restriction enzyme, DNA ligase d. reverse transcriptase, DNA ligase, DNA polymerase, restriction enzyme e. reverse transcriptase, restriction enzyme, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase	reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, restriction enzyme, DNA ligase Beginning with the mRNA transcript, we use reverse transcriptase to make a cDNA copy, followed by DNA polymerase to make the second strand. A restriction enzyme creates sticky ends on the cDNA and opens the plasmid for insertion, and ligase seals the gap.	44
1870581611	A scientist wishing to create an organism capable of breaking down several kinds of toxic waste combines genes from several species of bacteria to create a single "superbacterium." Which of the following would be needed for this project? a. nucleic acid probes b. DNA ligase c. plasmids d. restriction enzymes e. All of the listed responses are correct.	All of the listed responses are correct. All of these "tools" would be needed.	45
1870581612	The dideoxyribonucleotide chain-termination method __________. a. produces a ladder of DNA fragments, with each individual band labeled with one of four different fluorescent tags b. can be used to sequence entire eukaryotic chromosomes in a single reaction c. is very slow, requiring several weeks to determine a sequence of about 200 nucleotides d. does not involve electrophoresis e. is difficult to automate and must be performed under close human supervision	produces a ladder of DNA fragments, with each individual band labeled with one of four different fluorescent tags Each band differs in size by a single nucleotide, and the particular fluorescent tag of the band indicates the identity of the final nucleotide.	46
1870581613	A nucleic acid probe is used to __________. a. clone genes b. produce a large amount of DNA from a tiny amount of DNA c. make exact copies of DNA sequences d. identify genes that have been separated by electrophoresis, or mRNA molecules through in situ hybridization e. make DNA from RNA	identify genes that have been separated by electrophoresis, or mRNA molecules through in situ hybridization A nucleic acid probe is a short single-stranded probe of either DNA or RNA that is complementary to the sequence of interest. It will base-pair with the sequence of interest in a gel or organism, revealing the location of that sequence.	47
1870581614	What is the source of the reverse transcriptase used in recombinant DNA technology? a. retroviruses b. plant cells c. cultured fungal cells d. cultured phage-infected mammalian cells e. either retroviruses or cultured phage-infected mammalian cells	retroviruses Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in retroviruses.	48
1870581615	Because eukaryotic genes contain introns, their transcripts cannot be translated by bacteria, which lack RNA-splicing machinery. But if you want to engineer a bacterium to produce a eukaryotic protein, you can synthesize a gene without introns. A good way to do this is to __________. a. alter the bacteria so that they can splice RNA b. use a nucleic acid probe to find a gene without introns c. work backward from mRNA to make a version of the gene without introns d. use a phage to insert the desired gene into a bacterium e. use a restriction enzyme to remove introns from the gene	work backward from mRNA to make a version of the gene without introns Reverse transcriptase can be used to make cDNA transcripts of mRNA.	49
1870581616	DNA synthesized using an RNA template is called __________. a. reverse transcriptase b. a restriction enzyme c. cDNA d. rDNA e. a plasmid	cDNA Reverse transcriptase from retroviruses can be used to make cDNA (complementary DNA) out of processed mRNA from eukaryotic cells.	50
1870581617	In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the sequence of bases in the primers is important because it __________. a. determines which segment of the genome will be amplified b. always matches a stop codon c. always causes a silent mutation d. determines how many cycles of the reaction are needed to obtain a sufficient amount of amplified DNA e. determines the number of tandem repeats in a genome	determines which segment of the genome will be amplified Primers are complementary to the ends of the targeted DNA and determine where DNA synthesis will begin.	51
1870581618	A molecular biologist has isolated a short segment of DNA that she wants to replicate in vitro. First she heats the DNA, which separates the two strands, and then she adds __________. a. nucleotides, primers, and polymerase b. ribosomes, nucleosomes, and messenger RNA c. nucleotides and ligase d. transfer RNA, matching amino acids, and messenger RNA e. ribosomes, matching amino acids, and primers	nucleotides, primers, and polymerase PCR requires a pool of nucleotide building blocks, primers to initiate DNA synthesis, and polymerase to continue elongation of the new strands.	52
1870581619	In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate. An original sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total rounds of heating and cooling before a sample is increased eight times in quantity? a. two b. three c. four d. six e. eight	three The amount of DNA doubles with each round. After one round, there is twice as much as was originally present. After two rounds, four times as much. After three rounds, eight times as much would be present.	53
1870581620	Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) __________. a. are single base-pair variations in the genomes of the human population b. are genetic markers used to study the genetic basis for disease c. are small nucleotide differences among individuals located in coding and non-coding sequences in the genome d. can be the molecular basis for different alleles e. All of the listed responses are correct.	All of the listed responses are correct. SNPs are single base-pair variations (polymorphisms) found in coding (i.e., the molecular basis for different alleles for genes) and noncoding DNA of the human genome that are useful in determining gene function and the genetic basis for diseases by way of genome-wide association studies.	54
1870581621	The efficiency of cloning, and the ability to generate healthy cloned animals, has been largely hampered by the difficulty of __________. a. completely reversing epigenetic alterations in donor cell nuclei such as DNA methylation and chromatin packing b. inducing recombination in differentiated donor cells in order to restore the full genomic complement c. transforming donor cells with genes encoding proteins required for normal embryonic development d. physically removing the nucleus from the egg cell that will ultimately receive the donor cell nucleus e. implanting the clone into the surrogate mother	completely reversing epigenetic alterations in donor cell nuclei such as DNA methylation and chromatin packing It is thought that the subtle abnormalities that often affect cloned animals result from an inability to completely reverse these alterations.	55
1870581622	Therapeutic cloning refers to __________. a. the use of cloned embryos as a source of stem cells that could be used to treat disease b. treating patients with therapeutic proteins made using recombinant DNA technology c. cloning animals to obtain organs that could be used for transplantation into humans d. treating a genetic disease by obtaining cells from an individual with the disease, introducing genes into the cells in order to repair the genetic defect, and then reintroducing the cells back into the individual e. All of the listed responses are correct.	the use of cloned embryos as a source of stem cells that could be used to treat disease Such cells could potentially be used to treat diseases such as Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and diabetes. Nevertheless, the prospect of therapeutic cloning remains quite controversial.	56
1870581623	Nuclear transplantation involves __________. a. inserting a sperm cell into an egg cell in vitro b. placing the nucleus from an egg cell into an enucleated somatic cell c. removing the nucleus of an egg cell and replacing it with the nucleus of a somatic cell d. the use of microarray analysis and RNA interference e. the use of reverse transcriptase to make copies of the genes that are being expressed	removing the nucleus of an egg cell and replacing it with the nucleus of a somatic cell In this way, the egg cell becomes diploid, similarly to when it is fertilized by a sperm.	57
1870581624	__________ can give rise to any type of cell whereas __________ can give rise to a subset of cell types. a. Heterozygous cells ... homozygous cells b. Adult stem cells ... embryonic stem cells c. Embryonic stem cells ... adult stem cells d. Totipotent cells ... nerve cells e. Adult stem cells ... totipotent cells	Embryonic stem cells ... adult stem cells Embryonic stem cells are essentially totipotent and can differentiate into any type of cell. Adult stem cells are partially differentiated and can further differentiate into certain types of cells.	58
1870581625	During the process of differentiation, cells __________. a. lose genes b. exchange DNA with other cells via the process of horizontal gene transfer c. gain and lose genes, depending on what type of cell they will become d. express different genes in response to developmental signals e. randomly turn on and off genes until the right combination is reached	express different genes in response to developmental signals Although the DNA in every cell is the same, different genes are expressed in a muscle cell and a nerve cell.	59
1870581626	Dolly, the sheep, was cloned from an adult cell. She had a number of health problems and died at a relatively young age. Three mules that were born in 2003 were cloned from fetal cells. If it turns out that the mules remain healthy and live normal lives, how would this outcome tie in with Gurdon's observations with tadpoles? a. Gurdon found no correlation between the age of the donor cells and the ability of the transplanted nucleus to direct development. b. Gurdon found that nuclei from older donor cells were more likely to correctly direct differentiation and give rise to healthy tadpoles. c. Gurdon found a positive correlation between the age of the donor nuclei and the ability of the nuclei to direct differentiation. d. Gurdon found that the ability of a transplanted nucleus to direct normal development was inversely related to the age of the donor. e. None of the listed responses is correct.	Gurdon found that the ability of a transplanted nucleus to direct normal development was inversely related to the age of the donor. In animals it appears that the age of the donor may have an effect on the ability of the nucleus to properly direct gene expression during development. Cloning has not been going on long enough for us to have a large enough data set to draw solid conclusions.	60
1870581627	All of the following are true regarding induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells EXCEPT __________. a. iPS cell technology may provide a more morally acceptable approach to therapeutic cloning b. iPS cells have been demonstrated to function identically to embryonic stems cells c. the reprogramming of diseased cells in humans to form iPS cells could provide model systems for studying the origins of the disease d. iPS cell technology could offer the potential to regenerate nonfunctional or diseased tissues and avoid the risk of transplant rejection in the diseased patient e. iPS cells are formed by added genes to the genome of differentiated skin cells	iPS cells have been demonstrated to function identically to embryonic stems cells Earlier studies suggested that iPS stem cells could do everything that embryonic stems cells can do but later investigations showed that differences in gene expression and cell division exist between the two cell types.	61
1870581628	All of the following are current applications of DNA technology in medicine EXCEPT __________. a. clinical use of iPS cells harvested from organ-impaired individuals for the culturing and transplantation of a functioning organ in the diseased individual b. use of genome-wide association studies to identify SNPs (single-nucleotide polymorphisms) linked to disease c. use of microarray assays to analyze the expression patterns of genes associated with a type of cancer d. use of retroviruses to introduce normal alleles of genes into diseased cells for disorders involving one defective gene e. genetically engineering organisms, from bacteria to goats, into protein factories that produce vital human proteins such as insulin, anticlotting agents, and human growth hormone	clinical use of iPS cells harvested from organ-impaired individuals for the culturing and transplantation of a functioning organ in the diseased individual Although iPS cell technology holds promise for this type of application, there is much we don't know about how to direct iPS cells into specific cell types to form tissues and organs.	62
1870581629	A genetic marker is __________. a. a place where a restriction enzyme cuts DNA b. a chart that traces the family history of a genetic trait c. a particular nucleotide sequence at a particular locus whose inheritance can be followed d. a radioactive probe used to find a gene e. an enzyme used to cut DNA	a particular nucleotide sequence at a particular locus whose inheritance can be followed A genetic marker is a landmark within a genome.	63
1870581630	Human nerve cells differ from human muscle cells because different sets of genes are expressed; in each type of cell, different genes are transcribed into mRNA and translated into protein. Which of the following techniques would be the most efficient way to identify the genes that these cells express? a. gel electrophoresis of DNA fragments b. DNA microarray assays c. isolating and analyzing all the proteins from each type of tissue d. PCR e. production of expression vectors	DNA microarray assays At least theoretically, this method allows all the different kinds of mRNA made by a particular type of cell to be quickly and easily tested for matching with all of the organism's genes.	64
1870581631	Gene therapy involves __________. a. adding a functioning version of a defective gene to the cells of an individual b. allowing individuals to follow the natural progression of a genetic disorder, accompanied by psychological counseling, then drug treatment when the condition becomes life-threatening c. no serious ethical questions d. replacing organs affected with genetic disorders by transplants e. All of the listed responses are correct.	adding a functioning version of a defective gene to the cells of an individual In gene therapy, a new, functional gene is inserted into the somatic cells of the tissue affected by the disorder.	65
1870581632	A molecular biologist used a retroviral vector to introduce a gene coding for a certain human enzyme into mouse cells. One cell line was isolated that was able to make the human enzyme, but it had lost the ability to express an endogenous, normally expressed gene in the process. What is the best explanation for these results? a. The virus caused the mouse cells to become diseased. b. The virus had transferred a gene from one mouse cell to another. c. The virus inserted the gene encoding the human enzyme within the sequence of a normally expressed endogenous gene. d. The virus was too small to carry the entire gene. e. The enzyme acted as a nuclease enzyme, cutting up mouse DNA.	The virus inserted the gene encoding the human enzyme within the sequence of a normally expressed endogenous gene. The inserted DNA disrupted the endogenous mouse gene, preventing its expression.	66
1870581633	Genetic profiles are used to determine whether Sam could be the father of Becky's baby. Sam is not the father if __________ genetic profile shows some bands not present in __________ genetic profile. a. Sam's ... the baby's b. Becky's ... the baby's c. the baby's ... Sam's d. the baby's ... Becky's e. the baby's ... Sam's or Becky's	the baby's ... Sam's or Becky's These bands must have come from the actual father.	67
1870581634	Genetic profiles used as evidence in a murder trial look something like supermarket bar codes. The pattern of bars in a genetic profile shows __________. a. the order of bases in a particular gene b. the presence of various-sized fragments of DNA c. the presence of dominant or recessive alleles for particular traits d. the order of genes along particular chromosomes e. the exact location of a specific SNP in an individual's genome	the presence of various-sized fragments of DNA There is only a very low probability that the markers used to produce a genetic profile would be shared by two or more individuals (with the exception of identical twins).	68
1870581635	Which of the following would be considered a transgenic organism? a. a bacterium that has been treated with a compound that affects the expression of many of its genes b. a human treated with insulin produced by E. coli bacteria c. a fern grown in cell culture from a single fern root cell d. a rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes e. All of the listed responses are correct.	a rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes Transgenic organisms contain genes from other species.	69
1870581636	Transgenic organisms can be scientifically or commercially useful only if __________. a. the inserted ("foreign") gene is drawn from the human genome b. the inserted ("foreign") gene is expressed in the host organism c. the host organism is a microorganism d. the vector is a plasmid e. All of the listed responses are correct.	the inserted ("foreign") gene is expressed in the host organism If the gene is not expressed, it will probably have little effect on the organism.	70
1870581637	In genetic engineering, the highly active plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to __________. a. insert genes of interest into plant chromosomes b. cut DNA at a specific base sequence c. locate specific genes on animal chromosomes d. detect and correct mistakes in DNA replication e. All of the listed responses are correct.	insert genes of interest into plant chromosomes The usual DNA vector for moving genes into plants is a plasmid of the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens.	71
1870685405	In DNA technology, the term vector can refer to a. the sticky end of a DNA fragment. b. the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments. c. a SNP marker. d. a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene. e. a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.	a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.	72
1870685406	Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use? a. DNA polymerase—polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA b. electrophoresis—separation of DNA fragments c. DNA ligase—cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments d. reverse transcriptase—production of cDNA from mRNA e. restriction enzyme—analysis of RFLPs	DNA ligase—cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments	73
1870685407	Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because a. a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant. b. plant genes do not contain introns. c. plant cells have larger nuclei. d. more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells. e. genes can be inserted into plant cells by micro injection.	a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.	74
1870685408	A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). To compare a specific region of the DNA from the sample with DNA from living birds, which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing? a. Southern blotting b. electroporation c. RFLP analysis d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. gel electrophoresis	polymerase chain reaction (PCR)	75
1870685409	DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is not done routinely at present? a. production of hormones for treating diabetes and dwarfism b. production of microbes that can metabolize toxins c. prenatal identification of genetic disease alleles d. introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes e. genetic testing for carriers of harmful alleles	introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes	76
1870685410	Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material? a. It was produced from mRNA using reverse transcriptase. b. It could be used as a probe to detect genes expressed in the brain. c. It lacks the introns of the human genes. d. It could be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction. e. It could be used to create a complete genomic library.	It could be used to create a complete genomic library.	77
1870685411	Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy to solve the problem of a. electroporation. b. post-transcriptional processing. c. restriction fragment ligation. d. nucleic acid hybridization. e. post-translational processing.	post-transcriptional processing.	78
1870685412	Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme? a. AAGG TTCC b. GGCC CCGG c. ACCA TGGT d. AGTC TCAG e. AAAA TTTT	GGCC CCGG	79

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Zoology Flashcards

Dr. Skypala's Zoology exam 1 study guide

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1672851203	Zoology	The scientific study of animal life.	0
1672851204	Reproduction	Creation of a cell (asexual) or a child (sexual)	1
1672851205	Chemical uniqueness	Living systems demonstrate a unique and complex molecular organization	2
1672851206	Development	characteristic changes that an organism undergo's from its origin.	3
1672851207	Metabolism	Living organisms maintain themselves by acquiring nutrients from their environment.	4
1672851208	Environmental interaction	All organisms interact with their environment, the study of this is called ecology.	5
1672851209	movement	living systems and their parts show precise and controlled movements arising from within the system.	6
1672851210	paradigms	Powerful theories that guide extensive research.	7
1672851211	Animals	Any multicelled heterotroph that ingests other organisms or their tissues, develops through a series of embryonic stages, and is motile during part or all of the life cyle. Most species have epithelial tissues and extracellular matrixes.	8
1672851212	Eukaryotic	A cell characterized by the presence of a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotes can be unicellular (protists) or multicellular (fungi, plants and animals).	9
1672851213	Multi-cellular	organisms made up of more than one cell (plants and animals)	10
1672851214	Heterotrophic	Organisms that are unable to construct their own food from inorganic sources, and therefore must consume other organisms or organic molecules from the outside environment. Function as consumers or decomposers in food chains.	11
1672851215	sexual reproduction	A reproductive process that involves two parents that combine their genetic material to produce a new organism, which differs from both parents	12
1672851216	Motile	Capable of movement	13
1672851217	Science	Assumes natural explanations and testable.	14
1672851218	Scientific method	A series of steps followed to solve problems including collecting data (observation), formulating a hypothesis, testing the hypothesis (experiment), and stating conclusions.	15
1672851219	Theory	A hypothesis that has been tested with a significant amount of data (closest to truth science gets)	16
1672851220	HMS Beagle, 5 Year voyage	what was the name of the ship and voyage that Charles Darwin took to study animal life.	17
1672851221	Darwins Evolutionary theory of Natural Selection.	The observation of why things change, providing explanation for origins of adaptation. This theory speaks of reproductive success and survival with limited natural resources due to an organisms advantageous genetic traits as well as population growth from this.	18
1672851222	Random, Non-Random Random, Non-Random	Two Components of natural selections are either ___________ or ____________ Production of VARIATION among organisms is ___________. The ____________ components include survival of different traits, and differential survival and reproduction.	19
1672851223	Populations Change. Unequal Reproduction.	What is the 2 word definition for evolution? What about the 2 word definition for Natural Selection?	20
1672851224	Homologus	________ means related or from common decent. (dealing with traits)	21
1672851225	Phylogenetic Tree	A chart showing evolutionary relationships as determined by evolutionary systematics. It contains a time component and implies ancestor-descendant relationships.	22
1672851226	Analogy	A similarity that comes about separately.	23
1672851227	Speciation	A process typically caused by the genetic isolation from a main population resulting in a new genetically distinct species.	24
1672851228	Multiplication of species	A branch point in the evolutionary tree, it occurs when an ancestrial species has split into two different ones by factors such as geographical splitting followed by evolutionary divergence of the separate parts.	25
1672851229	Allopatric speciation	The formation of a new species as a result of an ancestral population's becoming isolated by a geographic barrier.	26
1683389685	Vicariant speciation	when a physical barrier that creates large, geographically separated populations that diverge into separate species, that is called..	27
1683389686	Founder Effect	Genetic drift that occurs when a few individuals become isolated from a larger population and form a new population whose gene pool composition is not reflective of that of the original population.	28
1683389687	Sympatric speciation	A hypothesis stating individuals can speciate while living in different components of the environment, individuals within a species become specialized for occupying different components of the environment.	29
1683439596	population genetics	Studies evolution as change in gene frequencies in population.	30
1683439597	Microevolution	Evolutionary changes in frequencies of different allelic forms of genes.	31
1683439598	Macroevolution	Evolution on a grand scale, Origins of new structures and designs, trends, mass extinctions ect.	32
1683439599	Stabilizing selection	Selects against extreme phenotypes	33
1683439600	Directional selection	Phenotypic character shifts in one direction	34
1683439601	Disruptive Selection	Selects against average phenotypes	35
1683439602	Richard Owen	__________ described homology as "the same organ in different organisms under every variety of form and function"	36
1683439603	Speciation , Millions	__________Links Macroevolution to microevolution, rates of this and extinction are measured in __________of years.	37
1683439604	Five	How many dramatic Mass extinctions are we aware of?	38
1683439605	The Permian Extinction	225 million years ago, half of the families of shallow water invertebrates and 90% of marine invertebrates disappeared. This was called _______________	39
1683439606	The Cretaceous Extinction	65 million years ago Marked the end of the dinosaurs and many other taxa. This was called _______________	40
1683439607	Become extinct or give rise to a new species	What are the 2 possible fates that a species can have?	41
1683439608	Heterochrony	Evolutionary change in the timing or rate of an organism's development leading to changes in size and shape	42
1683439609	Paedomorphosis	The retention in an adult organism of the juvenile features of its evolutionary ancestors.	43
1683439610	Isolecithal, Mesolecithal, Telolecithal, Centrolecithal	__________= Little Yolk, __________= Medium yolk at vegetal pole, __________= Lots of yolk at vegetal pole, __________= Large, Central Yolk	44
1683439611	Meroblastic Cleavage	a type of cleavage in which there is incomplete division of yolk-rich egg, characteristic of avian development	45
1683439612	holoblastic Cleavage	A type of cleavage in which there is complete division of the egg, as in eggs having little yolk (sea urchin) or a moderate amount of yolk (frog).	46
1683439613	Cleavage	Repeated mitosis describes a _____________, (No cell growth occurs, only subdivision until cells reach regular somatic cell size. At the end a "Blastula" is formed)	47
1683439614	Gastrulation	____________ results in the formation of a second germ layer, It involves an invagination of one side of the Blastula and forms a new internal cavity called an Archenteron or Gastrocoel. The opening to this cavity is called a blastopore.	48
1683439615	Gastrocoel	embryonic cavity forming in gastrulation that becomes the adult gut; also called an archenteron	49
1683439616	Blastopore	A _________In a gastrula is the opening of the archenteron or embryonic gut that typically develops into the anus in deuterostomes and the mouth in protostomes.	50
1683439617	Blind gut	food enters and exits from the same opening	51
1683439618	Complete gut	two openings, a mouth an and anus, The endodermal tube or gut, is surrounded by the blastocoel and has 2 openings (blastopore).	52
1683439619	Nerve tissue arises from ectoderm, Muscle and connective tissues arise from mesoderm, Epithelial tissues arise from all three germ layers including endoderm.	Describe the 3 germ layers.	53
1683439620	-Proliferation of cells from near the lip of the blastopore into the space between the archenteron and the outer body wall. -pushing of the central region of the archenteron wall into the space between the archenteron and the outer body wall.	Describe the 2 ways that the mesoderm forms from the endoderm.	54
1683439621	Triploblasts	animals with three germ layers	55
1683439622	Taxonomy	_________ is the scientific study involving naming and classifying biological life.	56
1683439623	Systematics	____________ is the scientific study of variation and evolutionary relationships between life forms. Classification is based on evolutionary relationships.	57
1683439624	Carolus Linnaeus in his publication Systema Naturae	Who proposed the Taxonomic system?	58
1683439625	Typological species concept	the discredited, pre-Darwinian notion that species are classes defined by the presence of fixed, unchanging characters shared by all members	59
1683439626	Biological species concept	Definition of a species as a population or group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce viable, fertile offspring, but are not able to produce viable, fertile offspring with members of other populations.	60
1683450173	Evolutionary Species concept	what concept states a species is a lineage evolving separately from others and with its own unitary evolutionary role and tendencies	61
1683450174	Phylogenic species concept	defines a species as the smallest group of individuals that share a common ancestor, forming one branch on the tree of life	62
1683450175	phylogeny	the sequence of events involved in the evolutionary development of a species or taxonomic group of organisms is described as its ______________	63
1683450176	an Outgroup	_________ is a species or group of species from an evolutionary lineage that is known to have di- verged before the lineage that includes the species we are studying (the ingroup)	64
1683450177	Clades	________ share derived characteristics and form subsets within a larger group.	65
1683450178	Synapomorphy	a trait that is shared by two or more taxa and inferred to have been present in their most recent common ancestor, whose own ancestor in turn is inferred to not possess the trait is called a__________	66
1683450179	Pleisomorphy	An ancestral or primitive trait. Character that was inherited from a distant or ancient ancestor.	67
1683450180	Accepts, Rejects, Differ, (difference has important evolutionary implications)	Both evolutionary and Cladistic taxonomy ____________ monophyletic ____________ Polyphyletic groups ____________ on accepting paraphyletic groups	68
1683450181	Common descent, Amount of adaptive evolutionary change	What are the 2 main principles in Traditional Evolutionary Taxonomy?	69
1683458801	Adaptive Zone, (a taxon that represents an adaptive zone is a GRADE)	a characteristic reaction and mutual relationship between environment and organism ("way of life") demonstrated by a group of evolutionarily related organism	70
1683458802	Monophyletic	The word ___________ is Pertaining to a taxon derived from a single ancestral species that gave rise to no species in any other taxa.	71
1683458803	Paraphyletic	The word ___________ is pertaining to a grouping of species that consists of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants.	72
1683458804	True	True or False, Cladistics only recognize Monophyletic taxa	73
1683458805	Protostomes and Deuterostomes	What are the two major groups of triploblastic animals (bilateral)?	74
1684522191	cleavage patterns, fate of blastopore, mesoderm formation, coelom formation	what are the four identification characteristics that protostomes and deuterostome groups have?	75
1684522192	Deuterostome embryos. Protostome embryos.	________________ develop a complete gut, blastopore becomes the anus while second opening becomes the mouth. _______________, Blastopore becomes the mouth and the anus forms from a second opening.	76
1684522193	Ectoderm- epithelium and nervous system tissue. Endoderm- Epithelial lining of the digestive tube. Mesoderm- The muscular system, reproductive system, peritoneum, endoskeleton	Describe the 3 germ layers and what they make up.	77
1684522194	Coelom	_____________ is the fluid filled cavity completely lined or surrounded by mesoderm.	78
1684522195	Schizocoely	what is it called when a coelom is formed by the splitting of embryonic mesoderm?	79
1684522196	enterocoely	in deuterosomes; process in which cells in the endoderm divide rapidly and roll outward into the blastocoel to form the mesoderm; mesoderm and coelom form simultaneously	80
1684522197	Coelomic cavity	This is formed by Schizocoely or enterocoely.	81
1684522198	Inherited	The method by witch the coelom forms is what type of character? (This is important in grouping organisms based on developmental characteristics)	82
1684522199	3 Tissue layer, 2 Cavities	Upon completion of coelom formation the body has _____ tissue layers and _____ cavities.	83
1684522200	Acoelomate plan	What is it called when Mesodermal cells completely fill the blastocoel and gut is the only body cavity?	84
1684522201	Pseudocoelomate	Mesodermal cells line the outer edge of the blastocoel, 2 body cavities formed. Persistent blastocoel (pseudocoelom) and gut cavity pseudocoelom is a false body cavity (only partially lined with mesoderm) this is called a ______________	85
1684522202	Eucoelomate	Mesodermal cells fill blastocoel, mesoderm splits, The space is called a coelom, it has a true body cavity meaning it is completely lined by mesoderm. 2 body cavities formed (gut and coelom). This is called a ___________.	86
1684522203	Symmetry	_____________ = Correspondence of size and shape of parts on opposite sides of a median plane.	87
1684522204	Asymmetrical	____________ Animals have no general body plan, these animals have no definite shape.	88
1684522205	Radial	Can be divided into equal parts around a central axis. This is called ___________ symmetry.	89
1684522206	Bilateral	____________ symmetry means that the organism can be divided along a sagittal plane into two mirror portions (right and left halves).	90
1684522207	Anterior, Posterior, Dorsal, Ventral, Medial, Lateral	the regions of bilaterally symmetrical animals include the _________ or head end, _________ or tail end, _________ or back side, _________ or front/belly side, ___________ or midline of the body and __________ or sides	91
1684522208	Distal, Proximal, Frontal Plane (Coronal plane), Sagittal plane, Transverse plane (cross section)	Other ways upon which you can describe the location of a body part in a bilaterally symmetrical animal is: _______ or parts Further from the middle of the body, _________ or parts that are Nearer to the middle of the body, ______________ Divides bilateral body into dorsal and ventral halves, ____________ Divides the body into right and left halves, __________ Divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.	92
1684522209	Epithelia- Lining Nervous- Control Muscular - Movement Connective -Support	What are the 4 types of tissues and a one word definition of there function.	93
1684522210	Cells	What is the smallest unit of life? Simplest metazoans, they demonstrate division of labor but are not strongly associated to perform a specific collective function on a more macro scale.	94
1684522211	Tissue	Cells grouped together to perform a similar function is called a __________.	95
1684522212	Organs	Tissues are assembled into larger functional units called ___________.	96
1684522213	Organ System	Organs work together to perform a common function, this higher level of organization is called a/an__________________	97
1684522214	Metamere, Somite. Metamerism (segmentation)	Serial representation of similar body segments along longitudinal axis of the body. Each segment is a _________ or ___________. _________ permits greater body mobility and complexity of structures and function. ex. Annelids, Arthropods, Chordates	98
1684522215	34, Cambrian	Zoologists recognize ________ major phyla of living multicellular animals. They are survivors of around 100 phyla that appeared 600 million years ago during the _____________ explosion (Burgess Shale) which happened to be the most important evolutionary event in geological history of life.	99
1691037073	Phagotrophs or holozoic	Heterotrophs that feed on visible particles are ___________ or __________ feeders.	100
1691037074	osmotrophs or saprozoic	Heterotrophs that ingest soluble food are ____________ or _________ feeders.	101
1691037075	pseudopodia	Amebas extend their ___________ to move.	102
1691037076	Axopodia	_________ are thin, pointed pseudopodia that contain a central longitudinal filament of microtubules called an axoneme,	103
1691037077	Testate	Amebas that make shells are called__________.	104
1691037078	Limax form	Some amebas aggregate and move as a unit; this movement is called the ______________	105
1691037079	Filopodia	____________ are thin extensions, usually branching, and containing only ectoplasm.	106
1691037080	Reticulopodia	_________ are long branching pseudopodia that protrude through the shell pores of foraminifera to form a network used in food capture.	107
1691037081	Hyaline cap	_______ is an extension of ectoplasm; endoplasm flows into it, becomes gel-like ectoplasm which anchors cell	108
1691037082	hydrogenosome	A___________ is a membrane-bound organelle of ciliates, trichomonads and fungi which produces molecular hydrogen and ATP. This organelle is thought to have most likely evolved from mitochondria.	109
1691037083	Kinetoplasts	__________ contain masses of circular DNA molecules and work in association with a kinetosome, an organelle at the base of a flagellum.	110
1691037084	dictyosomes	Golgi complexes are also called ____________.	111
1691037085	Cytosome	mouth-like opening in ciliates/protozoa.	112
1691037086	cytopyge	functions as expulsion of waste sites in some protozoa, ~anus, also called a cytoproct.	113
1691037087	Multiple Fission, Sporogony	________ is asexual reproduction in which a single cell undergoes many mitotic divisions in the nucleus and a number of daughter cells are produced all at once, this is also called schizogony. If this is preceded by or associated with union of gametes, it is called _________.	114
1691037088	isogametes, anisogametes	When gametes all look alike they are called ___________. when dissimilar (most species) it is called ____________.	115
1691037089	Syngamy	Fertilization of an individual gamete by another is called _____________.	116
1691037090	autogamy	Gametic nuclei arising by meiosis and forming a zygote within the same organism that produced them is a process called_________.	117
1691037091	Encysment	_____________ is to form a protective capsule (cyst) allows survival under adverse conditions.	118
1691037092	axostyle	The rodlike support structure found in some flagellates is called an _____________.	119
1691037093	Contractile Vacuole	The cell structure that collects extra water from the cytoplasm and then expels it from the cell is called a ________________.	120
1691037094	False, they are always multinucleate	True or False, Ciliates are always mononucleate.	121
1691162056	Oral Groove	In a paramecium the ___________ is a depression that runs obliquely backward on the ventral side.	122
1691162057	Pellicle	__________ is a clear elastic membrane that may be ornamented by ridges or papilla-like projections (paramecium)	123
1691162058	Binary fission	A form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms by which one cell divides into two cells of the same size. This is called __________________.	124
1691162059	Apical complex	All apicomplexans are endoparasites, and their hosts include many animal phyla, the presence of a certain combination of organelles, the __________ __________, distinguishes this phylum.	125
1691162060	Bradyzoites	_________ is the form of toxoplasma gondii (parasite of cats) that stays in cysts in skeletal and cardiac muscle and nerve tissue, form from walled off tachyzoites. It is estimated that 1/3 of the worlds human population carries tissue cysts containing these.	126
1691162061	Malaria	___________ is an infective disease caused by sporozoan parasites that are transmitted through the bite of an infected Anopheles mosquito, the period upon witch the parasites are in the liver is called the incubation period.	127
1691162062	Merozoites	___________ is when the sporozoites undergo schizogony in liver cells and produce thousand of progeny which infect red blood cells.	128
1691162063	Toxoplasma	________ is the causative agent of toxoplasmosis; one of the most widely distributed parasites of humans; cats are definitve host; infection results from consumption of undercooked meat; can infect fetus.	129
1691246612	Protozoan	A single-celled protist that can be aquatic or parasitic, that has organelles enclosed by a membrane and that can move independently; examples include amebas and paramecia would be classified as a ______________.	130
1691246613	Porifera	what phylum are sponges in?	131
1691246614	Placozoa	a phylum of plate like animals that can move on the substrate by laying down mucus and gliding across with cilia their bodies are arranged in three layers one cell thick and can reproduce sexually and asexually and may be related to the dipoblastic organisms. The phylum that best suits these traits is ___________.	132
1691246615	Choanoflagellates	Protists that resemble sponge cells in having a microvilli collar around a single flagellum at their anterior end closest living protistan relatives of the animals are ______________.	133
1691246616	choanocytes	Collar cells that line the body cavity and have flagella that circulate water in sponges are called ___________.	134
1691246617	Spicules	_______ are hard needlelike structures that form the skeleton of sponges; can be either calcium carbonate (such as Grantia) or silica (such as the Venus Flower Basket).	135
1691246618	Spongin	___________ is the collagen protein that forms the fibrous skeleton of a sponge, and is the soft and flexible material where the spicules are embedded.	136
1691246619	Suspension	The use of the collar (choanocytes) as a filter to feed a sponge is called ______________ feeding.	137
1691246620	Spongocoel	The central cavity of sponges that water passes into is called the ______________.	138
1691246621	asconoid	very small, flagella that move water through the spongocoel is called the ____________.	139
1691323333	syconoid	Which body plan has choanocytes lining the radial canals? (Porifera)	140
1691323334	Asconoid	what type of sponges have the simplest organization?	141
1691323335	apopyles	The Opening through which water passes out of the radial canals into the spongocoel from the beating of choanocytes in sponges is called ______________.	142
1691323336	Radial Canals	Where is food ingested by the choanocytes?	143
1691323337	Osculum	A large opening on a sponge through which filtered water is expelled is called an ____________.	144
1691323338	mesenchyme	Sponge cells are loosely arranged in a gelatinous extracellular matrix called a _______________. or Mesohyl.	145
1691323339	Archaeocytes	amoeba like cells that can move and change in a sponge; involved in digestion, production of eggs and sperms, and excretion; can become specialized cells that secrete spicules. These are called ____________.	146
1691323340	pinacocytes	_______ are epithelial type cells making up the outer layer of the sponge.	147
1691323341	Parenchymula	free-swimming larva of sponges is called________.	148
1691323342	Class Demospongiae	What group contains 95% of living sponge species?	149
1691363694	Cnidaria	What phylum best fits this: Anthozoa, Hydrazoa, Cubozoa, Scyphozoa; Hydra are freshwater, and have no medusa stage; Glides on gas bubble	150
1691363695	Ctenophora	Comb Jellies (jellyfish type) which uses cilia (commonly called combs) to swim. Resemble cnidaria but use these cilia. Has decentralized nerve net instead of break like other jellyfish. Main Thing: Cilia using Jellyfish. What phylum describes this?	151
1691363696	Nematocysts	____________In a cnidocyte of a cnidarian, a specialized capsule-like organelle containing a coiled thread that when discharged can penetrate the body wall of the prey.	152
1691363697	cnidocyte	__________ is a specialized cell for which the phylum Cnidaria is named; consists of a capsule containing a fine coiled thread, which, when discharged, functions in defense and prey capture. (stinging cell)	153
1691842409	Polyp (hydroid) or Medusa (jellyfish)	All Cniderian forms fit into one of the two morphological types ____________ or ___________.	154
1691842410	Polymorphism	__________ occurs when a single genotype can express more than one body form.	155
1691842411	Strobilation	a budding process where individual polyps produce stacks of early medusas is called ___________.	156
1691842412	Cnidoblast	Like an osteoblast is the primary cell type for bone formation in humans, and a chondroblast develops the cartilage for humans a cnidocyte is properly called a ___________ during the formation of cnidae.	157
1691842413	cnidocil	_______ is a bristle-like structure that extends from one end of a cnidocyte and functions as a trigger.	158
1691842414	gonagium	The reproductive polyp of an obelia is called ___________.	159
1691842415	statocysts	groups of sensory cells that help cnidarians determine the direction of gravity are called ____________.	160
1691842416	hypostome	__________ is a conical structure at the oral end of a hydra that bears the mouth surrounded by tentacles.	161
1691842417	Basal disk	_______ _______ is a small area on hydra that secretes a sticky substance from gland cells, which enables them to adhere to rocks or plants in the water.	162
1691842418	scyphistoma	when the planula larva escapes from the parent and attaches to a substratum, it develops into tiny polyps called a _______________.	163
1691842419	protandrous	Monoecious species are ___________ meaning they sperm first, then egg)	164
1691842420	Acoelomorpha	____________are triplobalstic and have a ciliated epidermis. they are hard to classify. no anus. they lack a true brain.	165
1691842421	Platyzoa	___________ are tiny and flat animals that move by ciliary motion; platyhelminthes, rotifera, micrognathozoa	166
1691842422	Mesozoa	________ are tiny ciliated animals ranging in size from only .5 mm to 7mm in length. Close to microscopic. Exists within the cephalopod molluscs.	167
1691842423	acolemate	________ means central space filled with tissue-mesoderm, no true body cavity, no coelum in embryo.	168
1691842424	monoecious	________ means having male and female reproductive organs in the same plant or animal. (Acoelomorphs are an example)	169
1691842425	syncytial tegument	_____________________ also known as a neodermis; nonciliated body covering of the three classes in Phylum Platyhelminthes. Multiple nuclei are enclosed within a single cell membrane.	170
1691842426	pharyngeal sheath	what encloses, surrounds and protects the pharynx of a platyhelminth digestive tract?	171
1691842427	protonephridia	The excretory systems of flatworms, forming a network of dead-end tubules connected to external openings is called its _______________.	172
1691842428	clonorchis sinensis	______________________Causes Oriental Liver Fluke and liver disease; transmission of parasite from the mammal host to humans (cats, dogs, swine)	173
1691842429	scolex	__________ is the head of an adult tapeworm; can contain suckers or hooks.	174

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GRE Psychology - Social Psychology Flashcards

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244598096	Asch's Conformity Study	Experiment that showed that subjects yield to group pressure and choose incorrect lines.	0
244598097	Attitudes	Likes and dislikes composed of: feelings, cognitions and behavior.	1
244598098	The Effect of Pressure on Attitude	If a person is pressured to do something contrary to his/her attitudes there will be a tendency to change attitudes. Attitude change is maximum when the behavior is induced with minimum pressure.	2
244598099	Attractiveness Stereotype	A tendency to attribute positive qualities to physically attractive people showing that physical characteristics are a huge determinant of attraction.	3
244598100	Bandura's Social Learning Theory	Theory asserting that learning occurs by modeling and reinforcement. People behave aggressively because they expect some kind of reward.	4
244598101	Batson's Empathy-altruism Model	in situations where others may need help, people might feel distress or might feel empathy. These states are important because either can cause a helping behavior. Some people disagree saying helping behavior only occurs when there is a benefit to the person offering help. Batson found that people who reported more distress than empathy tended to leave. However people who reported more empathy were more willing to help the subject.	5
244598102	M.J. Lerner	Defined "Belief in a Just World"	6
244598103	Belief in a Just World	Good things happen to good people and bad things happen to bad people.	7
244598104	Belief Perseverance	Under certain conditions people will hold their beliefs even after they have been shown to be false. If you believe a statement and then provide your own explanation for it, your beliefs will be preserved even after you are shown they are false e.g. eating chocolate cause acne.	8
244598105	John Darley and Bibb Latane	Studied bystander Intervention	9
244598106	Carl Hovland's Model	Attitude changes as a process of communicating with someone to persuade them. It has communicator, communication and the situation.	10
244598107	Clark and Clark Doll Preference Study	Experiment that showed the majority of black and white children prefer a white doll. It was used to argue against school segregation.	11
244598108	Compliance	A change in behavior that occurs as a result of situational or interpersonal pressure	12
244598109	Consistency Theories	People prefer consistency and will change or resist changing attitudes based on this preference.	13
244598110	Cultural Truisms	Beliefs that are seldom questioned; when not inoculated they are more vulnerable to attacks.	14
244598111	Dimensions of Individual Personality	Individuals have different dimensions of personality and there are factors that determine which identity will be enacted in particular situations.	15
244598112	Door-in-the-Face Effect	People who refuse large unreasonable initial request are more likely to agree to a later smaller request.	16
244598113	Proxemics	E. Hall's study of how individuals space themselves in relation to others	17
244598114	Equity Theory	We consider not only our own costs/rewards but also other people's costs/rewards. We prefer that our costs/rewards ratio be equal to the other person's ratio. If a person feels he/she is getting more or less out of relationship there will be instability.	18
244598115	Foot-in-the-Door Effect	People who comply with initial small request are more likely to agree to a later larger request.	19
244598116	Forced-compliance Dissonance	When an individual is forced to behave in a way that is inconsistent with his/her beliefs or attitudes. e.g. if a child can only have ice cream only after she eats	20
244598117	Free-choice Dissonance	When a person makes a choice between several desirable alternatives. The choice of one over the other causes instability.	21
244598118	Fritz Heider's Balance Theory	Imbalance occurs when someone agrees with someone he/she dislikes or disagrees with someone he/she likes. Balance exists when there is ONE or THREE positives. To achieve balance, somebody needs to change attitude.	22
244598119	Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis	When people are frustrated they behave aggressively. The strength of aggression is correlated to the level of frustration.	23
244598120	Fundamental Attribution Error	When inferring the causes of other's behaviors, there is a general bias toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions.	24
244598121	Attribution Theory	There is a tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people's behaviors.	25
244598122	Gain-Loss Principle	Aronson and Linder's theory asserting that an evaluation that changes will have more of an impact than an evaluation that remains constant.	26
244598123	Gain-Loss Principle	We will like someone more whose liking for us has increased than someone who has consistently liked us.	27
244598124	Group Polarization	The tendency for group discussion to enhance the group's initial tendencies towards riskiness or caution.	28
244598125	Groupthink	Irving Janis' concept that there is a tendency of decision-making groups to strive on consensus by not considering the discordant information.	29
244598126	Halo effect	Tendency to allow a general impression about a person like "I like Jill in general" to influence other, more specific evaluations about a person (Jill is a good writer etc).	30
244598127	Leon Festinger's Cognitive Dissonance Theory	The conflict that you feel when your attitudes are not in sync with your behaviors. It can be reduced by changing dissonant elements or by adding consonant elements.	31
244598128	Leon Festinger's Social Comparison Theory	We tend to affiliate with other people because we compare ourselves to other people. 1) People prefer to compare themselves by object/non-social means 2) the less similarity of opinions the less tendency to make comparisons 3) when there is discrepancy there is a tendency to change one's position as to move in line with the group.	32
244598129	Mere Exposure Hypothesis	Robert Zajonc's concept that repeated exposure to a stimulus leads to enhanced liking for it.	33
244598130	Minimal Justification Effect	When a behavior can be justified by external rewards there is no need to change internal cognitions. However when the external justification is minimum you will need to decrease your dissonance by changing internal cognitions (e.g. from thinking that the task was boring to it wasn't too bad).	34
244598131	Autokinetic effect	If you stare at a point of light in a dark light, it will appear to move.	35
244598132	Need Complementarity	People choose relationships so that they can satisfy each other's needs.	36
244598133	Norman Triplett	Did the first study of social psychology, people perform better on familiar tasks when in the presence of others than alone.	37
244598134	Over-Justification Effect	If you reward people for something they already like, they may stop doing it because they will start attributing their behavior to the reward.	38
244598135	Petty and Cacioppo's Elaboration Likelihood Model of Persuation	There are two routes to persuasion, central route (strong argument matters) and peripheral route (persuader's status and surroundings matter more than the argument).	39
244598136	Philip Zimbardo's Prison Study	Study that showed that through de-individuation people are more likely to commit antisocial acts when they feel they are anonymous in a social environment	40
244598137	De-individuation	The loss of self-awareness and personal identity.	41
244598138	Pluralistic Ignorance	Judging an ambiguous event as a non-emergency.	42
244598139	Post-decisional Dissonance	When dissonance occurs after a decision has been made.	43
244598140	Primacy Effect	First impressions are more important than subsequent impressions	44
244598141	Recency Effect	Most recent information we have about an individual is more important.	45
244598142	Reactance	When social pressure is so blatant, a person's sense of freedom is threatened, people will assert their sense of freedom. If you try too hard to persuade someone they will choose to believe the opposite of your position.	46
244598143	Reciprocity Hypothesis	We tend to like people who indicate that they like us and reverse	47
244598144	Refuted Counterarguments	McGuire's inoculation against cultural truisms by first presenting arguments against the truisms and then refuting the arguments, which motivates people to practice defending their beliefs	48
244598145	Risky shift	Group decisions are riskier than the average individual choices	49
244598146	Role Theory	The perspective that people are aware of the social roles they are expected to fill and most of their observable behavior can be attributed to adopting those roles.	50
244598147	Sleeper Effect	Over time the persuasive impact of a highly credible source decreased while the persuasive impact of the low credibility source increased. A source can increase their credibility by arguing against their self-interest.	51
244598148	Social Exchange Theory	We weigh the rewards and costs of interacting with another in order to maximize rewards and minimize the cost.	52
244598149	Social Loafing	Tendency for people to put forward less effort when part of a group than working individually.	53
244598150	Social Perception	The ways in which we form impressions about the characteristics of individuals and of groups of people.	54
244598151	Spatial Proximity	People near to us are easily accessible and there is greater interaction which causes more affiliation.	55
244598152	Stanley Milgram's Obedience Experiment	Study in which subjects were asked to administer electrical shocks to another person at higher and higher voltages. The majority of subjects yielded to the experimenter's request and continued shocking to the maximum voltage.	56
244598153	Stanley Schachter's Research	The greater the need to compare the greater is the desire to affiliate. Also greater anxiety does lead to greater desire to affiliate. A situation that provokes lesser anxiety doesn't provoke the need to affiliate. Anxious people like the company of anxious people. Both anxiety and a need to compare oneself with other people may play roles in determining both when and whom we affiliate with.	57
244598154	Theodore Newcomb's Study	Experiment that studied the influence of group norms in a small liberal college. The student's parents were republican and conservative. But the students became liberal with time and stayed that way 20 years after. Those who didn't marry liberal men changed back to old beliefs.	58
244598155	Two factors in Bystander Intervention	1. Social influence 2. Diffusion of responsibility	59
244598156	Two-Sided Messages	Messages that contain arguments for and against a position; often used in "balanced" communication as in news.	60
244598157	Value Hypothesis	Asserts that risky shift is more likely to occur in situations in which riskiness is culturally valued. Such as riskiness in business ventures.	61
244598158	Verplank	Believed that social approval influences behavior and that conversation changes dramatically based on feedback (approval) from others.	62
244598159	McDougal and Ross	Published first textbooks on social psychology.	63
244598160	Zajonc's Theory	The presence of others increases arousal and emission of dominant responses. At early stage of learning dominant responses are wrong, while later correct responses are dominant.	64
244598161	The Prisoner's Dilemma	Theory asserting that in such a competition it is in both participants best interest to cooperate. When making the decision consider the options 1. I cooperate, you don't 2. We both cooperate 3. Neither of us cooperateds 4. You cooperate, I don't	65
244598162	Cooperation	The voluntary arrangement in which two or more people engage in a mutually beneficial exchange instead of competing	66
244598163	Competition	Behavior in which individuals try to attain a goal for themselves while denying that goal to others	67
244598164	Kurt Lewin's Study	Identified 3 different styles of leaders: Authoritarian, Democratic and Laissex-fair	68
244598165	Authoritarian Leader	Autocratic leaders who 1. Provide clear expectations for what needs to be done, when it should be done, and how it should be done. 2. Set a clear division between the leader and the followers. 3. Make decisions independently with little or no input from the rest of the group.	69
244598166	Democratic Leader	The most effective leadership style. They 1. Offer guidance to group members while participating in the group and allowing input from other group members. Show less productivity, but higher quality contributions. Group members feel engaged in the process and are more motivated and creative.	70
244598167	Laissez-fair Leader	Leader who offer little or no guidance and gives complete decision-making freedom to the group or to individual members, often leading to poorly defined roles and a lack of motivation.	71
244598168	Muzafer Sherif's Conformity Study	Showed that people were influenced by other people's opinions, in their perception of the autokinetic effect.	72
244598169	Robber's Cave Experiment	Three phase study of prejudice 1. Intragroup cooperation (two groups kept separate to create cooperation and group cohesion) 2. Intergroup competition (groups put into direct competition showed direct hostility) 3. Introduction of subordinate goals (groups forced to work together formed eventual cohesion)	73

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Principles of Supervision Flashcards

Terms and notes for Principles of Supervision DSST exam

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1764001035	Top level managers	Also called senior management or executives. These individuals are at the top one or two levels in an organization, and hold titles such as: Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Chief Financial Officer (CFO), Chief Operational Officer (COO), Chief Information Officer (CIO), Chairperson of the Board, President, Vice president, Corporate head.	0
1764001036	Mid level managers	Or tactical managers. Include department managers, directors of operations, plant managers	1
1764001037	Low level managers	Or operational managers or front-line managers. Make short-term operating decisions, directing the daily tasks of non-managerial personnel. Include supervisors, office managers, foremen.	2
1764001038	Manager skills	Technical, analytical, decision-making, conceptual, computer, communication, interpersonal	3
1764001039	Planning steps	Situation analysis, alternates, evaluation, selection, implement, monitor and control	4
1764001040	Manager functions by Henri Fayol	planning, organizing, leading, controlling	5
1764001041	Levels of planning (by Henri Fayol)	Strategic planning: more than 5 years Tactical planning: 2-5 years Operational planning: less than 2 years	6
1764015041	Roles of managers (Henry Mintzberg)	Interpersonal: leader, liaison, figurehead Informational: monitor, disseminate, spokesperson Decisional: entrepreneur, disturbance handler, negotiator, resource, allocator	7
1764051944	Caux Principles	show concern for human dignity and work for the common good	8
1764051945	Sarbanes-Oxley Act	enacted in 2002 because of Enron and WorldCom scandals. Sets strict accounting and reporting rules that make top-level managers more accountable in an attempt to promote ethical behavior within public companies.	9
1764051946	Corporate social responsibility	obligations that a business has toward society; economic, legal, ethical, philanthropic	10
1764051947	Economic corporate responsibility	produce goods that are desired and profitable	11
1764051948	Legal corporate responsibility	obey laws	12
1764051949	Ethical corporate responsibility	meet society's moral expectations	13
1764051950	Philanthropic corporate responsibility	participate in desirable behaviors (charities/volunteering)	14
1764051951	Vroom model (Victor H Vroom)	Situational model that helps leaders decide how much participation to use during decision making. 5 steps	15
1764051952	Path-goal theory (Robert House)	Situational theory that assesses characteristics of the followers and environmental factors before determining the appropriate leadership behavior. 4 characteristics	16
1764051953	Vroom's Decision Making Steps	1. Decide 2. Consult individually 3. Consult group 4. Facilitate 5. Delegate	17
1764051954	Characteristics of Path-goal theory	1. Directive 2. Supportive 3. Participative 4. Achievement-oriented leadership	18
1764077301	Modern theories on leadership	Charismatic Transformational Transactional Level 5 Leaders Authentic Leaders Pseudo transformational leaders	19
1764077302	Charismatic leaders	arouse excitement	20
1764077303	Transformational leaders	motivate people to focus on the good rather than personal	21
1764077304	Transactional leaders	use legitimate, reward, and coercive powers to give orders in exchange for benefits	22
1764077305	Level 5 leaders	combine determination and humility to build long-term leadership	23
1764077306	Authentic leaders	use honesty, genuineness, reliability, and integrity to lead others; willing to sacrifice their own interests	24
1764077307	Pseudo transformational leaders	speak about positive change for followers, but power, control, wealth, and fame take priority instead	25
1764077308	Positive reinforcement	give a consequence that will encourage the behavior to be repeated	26
1764077309	Negative reinforcement	remove an unpleasant consequence, such as taking a worker off probation	27
1764077310	Punishment	give an unpleasant consequence, such as criticizing an employee or assigning work	28
1764077311	Extinction	fail to give a reinforcing consequence by not complimenting an employee	29
1764123527	Vroom's expectancy theory	People's level of effort is tied to 1. Expectancy - increased efforts will lead to achieving performance goals; 2. Instrumentality - good job performance will lead to a specific outcome; and 3. Valence - the value an employee places on a specific outcome.	30
1764123528	Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs	Physiological Safety Social Ego Self-Actualization	31
1764123529	Alderfer's ERG Theory	three basic sets of needs: existence, relatedness, growth	32
1764123530	McClelland's needs	three dominant needs: achievement, affiliation, power	33
1764123531	Management functions of Control	Bureaucratic control Market Control Clan Control	34
1764123532	Bureaucratic control	formal rules, regulations, authority, such as budgets and performance appraisals	35
1764123533	Market control	guides with pricing mechanisms and economic information	36
1764123534	Clan control	norms, values, trust with the assumption that the organization and the employee share the same interests. Best in environments where employees are empowered in decision-making. There is NO specific way to complete a task.	37
1764123535	Six Sigma	feedback control tool used in manufacturing that aims to reduce defects	38
1764123536	Budgets	control process that involves investigating what a firm has done. Feed-forward, concurrent, and feedback controls	39
1764238201	Strategic Management	The process of multi-level managers working together to develop and implement a firm's goals and strategies.	40
1764238202	Strategic Management Process	1. Establish mission, vision, goals (develop mission statement) 2. Analyze external opportunities and threats (external environment, culture, etc) 3. Analyze internal strengths and weaknesses (core competencies) 4. Perform SWOT analysis and formulate strategy 5. Implement strategy 6. Implement strategic control system	41
1764238203	Strategic vision	desired future direction of organization; strategic goals are primary targets	42
1764238204	Organizing	structuring a company's human/physical resources; tasks, people, and departments; first step is to determine organizational structure	43
1764238205	Differentiation	part of organizing; division of labor, task specialization	44
1764238206	Integration	part of organizing; different units in an organization coordinate their efforts to create a product or service	45
1764655436	Board of directors	report to stockholders, protect rights of stockholders, advise management.	46
1764655437	CEO	reports to board and is responsible for performance of the firm	47
1764655438	Board of directors primary duties	1. Choosing, evaluating, rewarding, and replacing CEO 2. Assessing and organization's financial plan 3. Deciding an organization's strategic direction 4. Monitoring an organization's ethical, legal, and socially responsible activities	48
1764655439	Span of control	number of subordinates who report to one manager	49
1764655440	Wide span	flat organization with many workers to report to one manager	50
1764655441	Narrow span	tall organization with numerous reporting levels and fewer workers to report to one manager	51
1764655442	Accountability	the expectation that a worker will perform a job and that failure to do so will result in corrective measures (e.g., status reports from subordinates regarding assigned tasks)	52
1764655443	Departmentalization	process of subdividing a business into smaller units or departments; allows for distinguishing line departments from staff departments	53
1764655444	Line departments	responsible for the primary activities of the organization, which may be making things, selling things, or providing customer service	54
1764655445	Staff departments	support line departments (accounting, legal, public relations, human resources)	55
1764655446	Staffing	A management function that includes hiring, motivating, and retaining the best people available to accomplish the company's objectives. Make sure to ask the legal questions!	56
1764655447	Legal staffing requests	authorization to work in the US; criminal record; proof of age after hiring; keep records for recording purposes about racial and ethnic identity	57
1764655448	Illegal staffing requests	proof of citizenship; arrest history; birth certificate; race, creed, national origin	58
1764655449	Lead power	ability to influence other people to do something that they might not otherwise do	59
1764655450	Reward power	the leader controls rewards	60
1764745490	Coercive power	the leader controls punishments	61
1764745491	Expert power	the leader has expertise	62
1764745492	Referent power	the leader has personal characteristics that trigger loyalty and admiration	63
1764745493	Legitimate power	the leader has the authority to tell others what to do and others are obligated to do so	64
1764745494	Trait approach	personal characteristics shared by exceptional leaders	65
1764745495	Behavioral approach	behaviors of effective leaders; task performance, group maintenance, and participation in decision making are the three general leadership behavior categories	66
1764745496	Bureaucratic control systems	1. Setting performance standards 2. Measuring performance 3. Comparing performance with the standard 4. Taking corrective action	67
1764745497	Bureaucratic control approaches	1. Feedforward 2. Concurrent 3. Feedback	68
1764745498	Feedforward control	Control that allows managers to anticipate problems before they arise	69
1764745499	Concurrent control	The control process used while plans are being carried out, including directing, monitoring, and fine-tuning activities as they are performed.	70
1764745500	Feedback control	Control that gives managers information about customers' reactions to goods and services so that corrective action can be taken if necessary	71
1764745501	Internal ethics programs	established in house to prevent unethical behavior; two types (compliance-based and integrity based)	72
1764745502	Compliance based ethics program	prevent, expose, and discipline violators	73
1764745503	Integrity based ethics program	instill personal and ethical responsibility among employees	74
1764745504	Socio-capitalism	blend profit with social responsibilities (e.g., Wal-Mart donates to the poor)	75
1764745505	Internal environment	Employees, office layout, management style, bonus systems; strong organizational culture benefits a business by encouraging employee loyalty and cooperation	76
1764745506	External environment	factors outside of an organization that have a direct or indirect effect on the organization	77
1764745507	Direct environmental effect	suppliers, competitors, customers; immediate and daily influence on a business; also known as competitive environment	78
1764745508	Indirect environmental effect	legal, political, economic, technological, social-cultural, and global; also known as macro environmental	79
1764745509	Final consumer	purchases products in their completed form	80
1764745510	Intermediate consumer	buys raw materials or wholesale products and then sells the completed products to the final consumer	81
1764745511	Regulators	power to investigate businesses (OSHA, FAA, EPA, SEC, FDA)	82
1764838874	Management by Objective	A method of management whereby managers and employees define goals for every department, project, and person and use them to monitor subsequent performance. (MBO)	83
1764838875	Ethnocentrism	To judge others by the standards of one's own group or culture, which are seen as superior.	84
1764838876	Facilitator	Provides resources to help employees carry out change and perform their jobs more effectively.	85
1764838877	Job analysis	HR task that is part of the organizing function	86
1764838878	Situational analysis	First step in making decisions about what the company is going to do and how. Involves gathering and analyzing information regarding past events, current conditions and future trends.	87
1765178130	Types of Performance Appraisals	Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARs) Management By Objectives (MBO) 360 Degree Feedback	88
1765178131	BARs Performance Appraisal	This formatted performance appraisal is based on making rates on behaviors or sets of indicators to determine the effectiveness or ineffectiveness of working performance. The form is a mix of the rating scale and critical incident techniques to assess performance of the staff.	89
1765178132	MBO Performance Appraisal	MBO is a method of performance appraisal in which managers or employers set a list of objectives and make assessments on their performance on a regular basis, and finally make rewards based on the results achieved. This method mostly cares about the results achieved (goals) but not to the way how employees can fulfill them.	90
1765178133	360 Degree Feedback Performance Appraisal	The style of 360 degree performance appraisal is a method that employees will give confidential and anonymous assessments on their colleagues. This post also information that can be used as references for such methods of performance assessments of 720, 540, 180...	91
1765216400	Collective Bargaining	An attempt by a union and management to come to an agreement on employment conditions, and if successful, results in a contract.	92
1765216401	Unstructured interview	Interview in which questions are not prearranged (although some questions may be prepared in advance), allowing for spontaneity and for questions to develop during the course of the interview.	93
1765216402	Management by walking around MBWA	A style of business management which involves managers wandering around, in an unstructured manner, through the workplace(s), at random, to check with employees, or equipment, about the status of ongoing work.	94
1765257632	Groupthink	The practice of thinking of making decisions as a group in a way that discourages creativity or individual responsibility	95
1765257633	Matrix organization	the practice of managing individuals with more than one reporting line (can be confusing reporting to more than one boss)	96
1765257634	Centralized management	Assumes that the best people in the organization will make the decisions	97
1765257635	Decentralized management	Assumes that the best decisions are made by those closest to the situation.	98
1765257636	Equal Pay Act of 1963	Requires that men and women be paid the same when they do essentially the same work. The act covers all employees and labor organizations. The equal pay requirement applies to the actual duties performed and not the job titles.	99
1765257637	Occupational Safety and Health Act	Requires employers to provide safe and healthy working conditions for employees. More commonly referred to as OSHA, and is administered by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.	100
1765257638	Civil Rights Act of 1964	The right to be served in public or private facilities designed to serve the general population. Access meant that no person, because of race, color, religion, national origin, or sex, could be denied entrance and use of public or private facilities. This included restaurants, theaters, hotels and motels, retail establishments of all kinds, and all governmental service locations.	101
1765257639	Equal Employment Opportunity	Defines what organizations must do to ensure equal treatment for all employees as well as applicants for employment.	102

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Biology EOC vocabulary Flashcards

terms for EOC Biology

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1542912213	Abiotic factor	"Any nonliving component of an ecosystem (e.g., sunlight, air, water, soil)"	0
1542912214	Activation energy	The kinetic energy required to initiate a chemical reaction	1
1542912215	Active transport	The movement of a substance across a plasma (cell) membrane against a concentration gradient	2
1542912216	Adhesion	The property of sticking to some other substance	3
1542912217	Aerobic respiration	Growing or metabolizing only in the presence of molecular oxygen	4
1542912218	Alcoholic fermentation	The process by which pyruvic acid is converted to ethyl alcohol	5
1542912219	Alleles	"Alternate forms of a gene or DNA sequence, which occur on either of two homologous chromosomes in a diploid organism"	6
1542912220	Alternation of generation	Alternating sexual and asexual generation reproduction	7
1542912221	Amino acid	"Any of 20 basic building blocks of proteins--composed of a free amino (NH2) end, a free carboxyl (COOH) end, and a side group (R)"	8
1542912222	Anaerobic respiration	Growing or metabolizing only in the absence of molecular oxygen	9
1542912223	Anaphase	"Third phase of mitosis, beginning when sister chromatids separate from each other and ending when a complete set of daughter chromosomes have arrived at each of the two poles of the cell"	10
1542912224	Antibiotic resistance	The ability of a microorganism to produce a protein that disables an antibiotic or prevents transport of the antibiotic into the cell	11
1542912225	Applied science	The practical use of scientific information to improve human life	12
1542912226	Artificial selection	Breeding organisms by humans for specific phenotypic characteristics	13
1542912227	Asexual reproduction	Nonsexual means of reproduction which can include grafting and budding	14
1542912228	Autotroph	An organism that uses energy to synthesize organic molecules from inorganic substances	15
1542912229	Bacteria	"A single-celled, microscopic prokaryotic organism"	16
1542912230	Base pair (bp)	A pair of complementary nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule	17
1542912231	Biodiversity	The wide diversity and interrelatedness of earth organisms based on genetic and environmental factors	18
1542912232	Biological evolution	Change in allele frequency of a species or population over time	19
1542912233	Biome	A geographic area characterized by specific kinds of plants and animals	20
1542912234	Biosphere	The area on and around Earth where life exists	21
1542912235	Biotic factor	A living component of an ecosystem	22
1542912236	Carbohydrates	"Compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in the approximate ratio of C:2H:O (e.g., sugars, starches, and cellulose)"	23
1542912237	Cell cycle	"The events of cell division; includes interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis"	24
1542912238	Cellular respiration	The process by which cells generate ATP through a series of redox (chemical) reactions	25
1542912239	Cell theory	"The theory that all living things are made of cells, that cells are the basic units of organisms, and that cells come only from existing cells"	26
1542912240	Centromere	The central portion of the chromosome to which the spindle fibers attach during mitotic and meiotic division	27
1542912241	Chloroplasts	A plastid containing chlorophyll; the site of photosynthesis	28
1542912242	Chromatid	Each of the two daughter strands of a duplicated chromosome joined at the centromere during mitosis and meiosis.	29
1542912243	Chromosome	"A single DNA molecule, a tightly coiled strand of DNA"	30
1542912244	Chromosome theory of heredity	The theory that states that genes are located on chromosomes and that each gene occupies a specific place on a chromosome	31
1542912245	Citric acid cycle (Kreb's)	Series of chemical reactions in aerobic respiration in which a acetyl coenzyme A is completely degraded to carbon dioxide and water with the release of metabolic energy that is used to produce ATP; also known as Kreb's cycle	32
1542912246	Cladogram	A branching diagram that illustrates taxonomic relationships based on the principles of claudistics	33
1542912247	Codominance	An inheritance relationship in which neither of two alleles of the same gene totally mask the other	34
1542912248	Cohesion	The property of sticking together; like substances sticking together	35
1542912249	Commensalism	The close association of two or more dissimilar organisms where the association is advantageous to one and doesn't affect the other(s)	36
1542912250	Community	All the populations in one area	37
1542912251	Cytokinesis	The division of cytoplasm of one cell into two new cells	38
1542912252	Cytoskeleton	Framework of the cell composed of a variety of filaments and fibers that support cell structure and drive cell movement	39
1542912253	Deletion	Chromosome abnormality in which part of the chromosome is missing; loss of one or more base pairs from DNA which can result in a frameshift	40
1542912254	Dichotomous key (classification key)	Classification tool used in identifying organisms or materials	41
1542912255	Diffusion	The process by which molecules move from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration	42
1542912256	DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)	"An organic acid and polymer composed of four nitrogenous bases--adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine; the genetic material of most organisms; exists as a double-stranded molecule held together by hydrogen bonds "	43
1542912257	Domain	"Taxonomic category that includes one or more kingdom (e.g., Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya)"	44
1542912258	Dominance	A characteristic in which an allele that expresses its phenotype even in the presence of a recessive allele	45
1542912259	Double helix	"The DNA molecule, resembling a spiral staircase in which the paired bases form the steps and the sugar-phosphate backbones form the rails"	46
1542912260	Ecology	The study of the interactions of organisms with their environment and with each other	47
1542912261	Ecosystem	The organisms in a plant population and the biotic and abiotic factors which impact on them	48
1542912262	Electron transport chain	Series of chemical reactions in the thylakoid membrane or inner mitochondrial membrane during which hydrogens or their electrons are passed along with the release of energy	49
1542912263	Endergonic reaction	A reaction requiring a net input of free energy	50
1542912264	Endocytosis	The process by which a cell surrounds and engulfs substances	51
1542912265	Energetics	Use of energy	52
1542912266	Energy pyramid	Summarizes interactions of matter and energy at each trophic level	53
1542912267	Enzymes	Proteins that control the various steps in all chemical reactions	54
1542912268	Epidemic	An outbreak of a contagious disease that spreads widely and rapidly	55
1542912269	Eukaryote	"An organism whose cells possess a nucleus and other membrane-bound vesicles, including all members of the protist, fungi, plant and animal kingdoms; and excluding viruses, bacteria, and blue-green algae"	56
1542912270	Evolution	The long-term process through which a population of organisms accumulates genetic changes that enable its members to successfully adapt to environmental conditions and to better exploit food resources	57
1542912271	Exergonic reaction	A reaction that gives off free energy	58
1542912272	Exocytosis	The process in which a vesicle inside a cell fuses with a cell membrane and releases its contents to the external environment	59
1542912273	Frameshift mutation	A mutation that results in the misreading of the code during translation because of the change in the reading frame	60
1542912274	Fungi	Microorganisms that lacks chlorophyll	61
1542912275	Gamete	"A haploid sex cell, egg or sperm, that contains a single copy of each chromosome"	62
1542912276	Gene	The functional unit of heredity; a locus on a chromosome that encodes a specific protein or several related proteins	63
1542912277	Genome	"The complete genetic material contained in an individual; the genetic complement contained in the chromosomes of a given organism, usually the haploid chromosome state"	64
1542912278	Genotype	The structure of DNA that determines the expression of a trait	65
1542912279	Genus	A category including closely related species; interbreeding between organisms within the same category can occur	66
1542912280	Germ Theory of Disease (Koch's Postulates)	A set of criteria used to establish that a particular infectious agent causes a disease	67
1542912281	Glycolysis	A pathway in which glucose is oxidized to pyruvic acid	68
1542912282	Heterotroph	An organism that obtains organic food molecules by eating organisms or their by-products	69
1542912283	Homeostasis	The stable internal conditions of a living thing	70
1542912284	Host	Animal or plant on which or in which another organism lives	71
1542912285	Human Genome Project	A project coordinated by the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the Department of Energy (DOE) to determine the entire nucleotide sequence of the human chromosomes	72
1542912286	Hydrogen bond	A relatively weak bond formed between any hydrogen atom (which is covalently bound to a nitrogen or oxygen atom) and a nitrogen or oxygen with an unshared electron pair	73
1542912287	Hypotheses	Statement or predictions that can be tested	74
1542912288	Incomplete dominance	"A condition where a heterozygous off- spring has a phenotype that is distinctly different from, and intermediate to, the parental phenotypes"	75
1542912289	Independent assortment	The law stating that pairs of genes separate independently of one another in meiosis	76
1542912290	Interphase	Period of time where a cell carries on metabolism and replicates chromosomes prior to cell division	77
1542912291	Inversion	A mutation that occurs when a chromosome piece breaks off and reattaches in reverse orientation	78
1542912292	k-strategist	"Species characterized by slow maturation, few young, slow population growth and reproduction late in life"	79
1542912293	Karyotype	"All of the chromosomes in a cell or an individual organism, visible through a microscope during cell division"	80
1542912294	Law	An observation that happens every time under a certain set of conditions	81
1542912295	Lactic acid fermentation	The process by which pyruvic acid is converted to lactic acid	82
1542912296	Light dependent	Reaction of photosynthesis that requires light; light energy is absorbed converted to chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH	83
1542912297	Light independent	The fixing of carbon dioxide in a 3 carbon compound for use in sugar production or other end products	84
1542912298	Lipid	Any of a group of organic compounds that are insoluble in water but soluble in nonpolar solvents; serve as energy storage and are important components of cell membranes	85
1542912299	Lysogenic cycle	"A type or phase of the virus life cycle during which the virus integrates into the host chromosome of the infected cell, often remaining essentially dormant for some period of time"	86
1542912300	Lytic cycle	"A phase of the virus life cycle during which the virus replicates within the host cell, releasing a new generation of viruses when the infected cell lyses"	87
1542912301	Mass extinction	One of the brief periods of time during which large numbers of species disappeared	88
1542912302	Meiosis	The reduction division process by which haploid gametes and spores are formed consisting of a single duplication of the genetic material followed by two mitotic divisions	89
1542912303	Metaphase	Second phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes line up across the equator of the cell	90
1542912304	Microbe	A microorganism	91
1542912305	Mitochondria	Organelles that are the sites of aerobic respiration in eukaryotic cells	92
1542912306	Mitosis	The replication of a cell to form two daughter cells with identical sets of chromosomes	93
1542912307	Molecular biology	The study of the biochemical and molecular interactions within living cells	94
1542912308	Molecular genetics	The branch of genetics that deals with the expression of genes by studying the DNA sequences of chromosomes	95
1542912309	Multiple alleles	Three or more alleles of the same gene that code for a single trait	96
1542912310	Mutation	An alteration in DNA structure or sequence of a gene	97
1542912311	Mutualism	A form of symbiosis in which both organisms benefit from living together	98
1542912312	Natural selection	The differential survival and reproduction of organisms with genetic characteristics that enable them to better utilize environmental resources	99
1542912313	Nitrogenous bases	"The purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine, cytosine, and uracil) that comprise DNA and RNA molecules"	100
1542912314	Nonvascular plant	"A plant that lacks vascular tissue and true roots, stems, and leaves"	101
1542912315	Nucleic acids	"The two nucleic acids, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA), are made up of long chains of molecules called nucleotides"	102
1542912316	Nucleotide	"A building block of DNA and RNA, consisting of a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group"	103
1542912317	Nucleus	The membrane-bound region of a eukaryotic cell that contains the chromosomes	104
1542912318	Organelle	A cell structure that carries out a specialized function in the life of a cell	105
1542912319	Osmosis	The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane	106
1542912320	Parasitism	The close association of two or more dissimilar organisms where the association is harmful to at least one	107
1542912321	Passive transport	The movement of substances across a plasma (cell) membrane without the use of cell energy	108
1542912322	Pandemic	An epidemic over a wide geographic area and affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the population	109
1542912323	Pathogen	Organism which can cause disease in another organism	110
1542912324	Pesticide	"A substance that kills harmful organisms (e.g., an insecticide or fungicide)"	111
1542912325	pH	Indicates the relative concentration of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions in a substance	112
1542912326	Pinocytosis	A type of endocytosis in which a cell engulfs solutes of fluids	113
1542912327	Phagocytosis	A type of endocytosis in which a cell engulfs large particles or whole cells	114
1542912328	Phenotype	"The observable characteristics of an organism, the expression of gene alleles (genotype) as an observable physical or biochemical trait"	115
1542912329	Phospholipids	A class of lipid molecules in which a phosphate group is linked to glycerol and two fatty acetyl groups; a chief component of biological membranes	116
1542912330	Photosynthesis	The process by which light energy is converted to chemical energy stored in organic molecules	117
1542912331	Plasma (cell) membrane	A selectively permeable surface that encloses the cell contents and through which all materials entering or leaving a cell must pass	118
1542912332	Point mutation	A change in a single base pair of a DNA sequence in a gene	119
1542912333	Polarity	Molecules having uneven distribution of charges	120
1542912334	Population	A local group of organisms belonging to the same species and capable of interbreeding	121
1542912335	Primary succession	Succession that occurs in a newly formed habitat that has never before sustained life	122
1542912336	Prokaryote	A bacterial cell lacking a true nucleus; its DNA is usually in one long strand	123
1542912337	Prophase	First phase of mitosis in which duplicated chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle fibers begin to form	124
1542912338	Protein	An organic compound composed of one or chains of polypeptides which in turn are formed from amino acids	125
1542912339	Protein synthesis	A formation of proteins using information coded on DNA and carried by RNA	126
1542912340	Pure science	The gathering of new information or the discovery of a new relationship or fact for sake of knowledge	127
1542912341	Punnett square	A type of grid used to show the gametes of each parent and their possible offspring; a type of grid that can indicate all the possible outcomes of a genetic cross	128
1542912342	Radioactive dating	A method of determining the age of an object by measuring the amount of a specific radioactive isotope it contains	129
1542912343	Recessive gene	Characterized as having a phenotype expressed only when both copies of the gene are mutated or missing	130
1542912344	Relative dating	A method of determining the age of fossils by comparing them to other fossils in different layers of rock	131
1542912345	Ribosome	A sub-cellular structure that is the site of protein synthesis during translation.	132
1542912346	RNA (ribonucleic acid)	"An organic acid composed of a single strand of nucleotide that acts as a messenger between DNA and the ribosomes and carries out the process of protein synthesis: composed units of adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil "	133
1542912347	Secondary succession	The sequential replacement of population in a disrupted habitat	134
1542912348	Segregation	The law stating that pairs of genes separate in meiosis and each gamete receives one gene of a pair	135
1542912349	Sex influenced	"Description of a trait that is caused by a gene whose expression differs in male and females; (e.g., male patterned baldness)"	136
1542912350	Sex linkage	"The presence of a gene on a sex chromosome; (e.g., hemophilia, color-blindness)"	137
1542912351	Sexual reproduction	"The process where two cells (gametes) fuse to form one hybrid, fertilized cell"	138
1542912352	Species	A classification of related organisms that can freely interbreed	139
1542912353	Spore	A form taken by certain microbes that enables them to exist in a dormant stage. It is an asexual reproductive cell	140
1542912354	Symbiosis	The close association of two or more dissimilar organisms where both receive an advantage from the association	141
1542912355	Taxonomic nomenclature	The procedure of assigning names to the kinds and groups of organisms according to their taxa	142
1542912356	Technology	Practical use of scientific information to improve the quality of human life: see also applied science	143
1542912357	Telophase	"Final phase of mitosis during which chromosomes uncoil, a nuclear envelope returns around the chromatin, and a nucleolus becomes visible in each daughter cell"	144
1542912358	Theory	A well tested explanation of natural events	145
1542912359	Thermoregulation	The maintenance of internal temperature within a range that allows cells to function efficiently	146
1542912360	Translation	The process of converting the genetic code in RNA into the amino acid sequence that makes up a protein	147
1542912361	Transcription	Process in which RNA is made from DNA	148
1542912362	Vaccine	A preparation of dead or weakened pathogen that is used to induce formation of antibodies or immunity against the pathogen	149
1542912363	Variation	Differences in the frequency of genes and traits among individual organisms within a population	150
1542912364	Vascular plants	A plant that has phloem and xylem	151
1542912365	Virus	"An infectious particle composed of a protein capsule and a nucleic acid core, which is dependent on a host organism for replication"	152

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Perception Chapter 6 Visual Attention Flashcards

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1322750835	divided attention	Paying attention to more than one thing at a time. Makes it difficult to focus on any one thing.	0
1322750837	selective attention	ignoring some, paying attention to some	1
1322750838	saccades	eye movements	2
1322750840	fixations	stops in eye movements (saccades) indicate where the person is attending	3
1322750842	3 Focus Factors	characteristics, picture meaning/observer knowledge, observer's task	4
1322750844	characteristics of a scene	brightness, color, salience, visability	5
1322750846	picture meaning and observer knowledge	scene schema, knowledge of what we expect to see in a scene	6
1322750849	observer's task	we look where we need to to get something done - task relevant information	7
1322750851	inattentional bias	you will not perceive something that you are not attending to, even if you are looking right at it	8
1322750854	change blindness	we miss changes that we are not specifically looking for	9
1322750857	precuing	participant is presented with a "cue" that indicates where a stimulus is most likely to appear.	10
1322750860	spreading enhancement	effect of attention that may help us perceive occluded objects; experiment by Robert Egly that showed that when attention is directed to one place on an object, the enhancing effect of this attention spreads throughout the object (ex. bars with targets ABCD); see also experiment by Moore et al. (ex. "animal" lurking behind tree)	11
1322750863	True	Paying attention to a stimulus makes it stand out more. It makes it seem brighter.	12
1322750866	binding	When features such as color, form, motion & location combine to create our perception	13
1322750869	FFA	Fusiform Face Area	14
1322750872	fusiform face area	is an area of the visual cortex that specifically responds to and recognizes faces.	15
1322750875	EBA	Extrastriate body area (in the brain).	16
1322750878	Extrastriate body area	Area of the visual cortex involved in perception of body parts.	17
1322750880	PPA	Parahippocampal Place Area	18
1322750882	Parahippocampal Place Area	PPA is important in encoding and recognizing environmental scenes like place, rooms, or landscapes.`	19
1322750884	Binding Problem	The problem confronted by the brain of recombining the elements of a stimulus, given the fact that these elements are initially analyzed separately by different neural systems.	20
1322750886	feature integration theory	A sequence of steps proposed by Treisman to explain how an object is broken down into features and how these features are recombined to result in a perception of the object.	21
1322750887	Why Attention is Everything	Focused attention "binds" the features together - Attention is the glue that binds the "what" & "where" streams together In the absence of focused attention, features associated with one object can be incorrectly combined with another. That makes illusions.	22
1322750888	Illusory Conjunctions	A situation, demonstrated in experiments by Anne Treisman, in which features from different objects are inappropriately combined.	23
1322750889	Balint's Syndrome	A condition caused by brain damage in which a person has difficulty focusing attention on individual objects. (Damage to Parietal Lobe)	24
1322750890	Synchrony hypothesis	the idea that when an object causes neurons in different parts of the cortex to fire, the timing of the firing of these neurons will be synchronized. This synchrony indicates that all of these neurons are responding to the same object. This idea has been proposed as a solution to the binding problem.	25

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Consciousness, Brain, and Behavior Flashcards

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2472312469	List the levels of alertness from most alert to least?	awake, drowsy, asleep, coma, death	0
2472315559	EEG measure what?	wave-like patterns used to monitor internal neural activity in the brain and ives info about the location of abnormal activity in the brain	1
2472321062	what type waves are recorded when the eyes are closed and the person is relaxed?	alpha waves (more spikes and peaks)	2
2472321799	what types of waves are recorded when the person is alert?	beta waves (more flat)	3
2472329246	why is sleep so important? (3)	1. conserves energy 2. repairs and restores 3. helps with learning and memory consolidation	4
2472335230	what does the circadian rhythm serve to regulate?	sleep/wake cycle, frequency of eating, body temp, hormones, volume of urination, sensitivity to drugs	5
2472338689	T/F: the circadian rhythm changes as a function of age?	true	6
2472341177	T/F: the circadian rhythm remains consistent despite the lack of environmental cues indicating the time of day?	true	7
2472344692	T/F: the circadian rhythm is similar between most people and lead similar wakefulness and alertness patterns	False; it differs between people	8
2472347517	T/F: the circadian rhythm runs fast in bright light so subjects have trouble sleeping	True	9
2472351480	What is the duration of one EEG cycle?	90 mins	10
2472352965	how many cycles typically occurs in one night of sleep?	4-8 cycles	11
2472357574	In what stage of sleep do we see: - alpha waves - EEG is irregular, jagged, low voltage waves -Brain activity is declining -some thea waves interspersed	Stage 1	12
2472358907	In what stage of sleep do we see: -sleep spindles -K complexes with sharp high amplitudes negative waves followed by smaller, slower positive waves	Stage 2	13
2472368854	In what stage of sleep do we see: -slow wave sleep (SWS) -EEG records slow, large amplitude waves -slow heart rate and breath -slow brain activity -highly synchronized neuronal activity	Stage 3 & 4	14
2472370289	In what stage of sleep do we see 20-50% delta activity	Stage 3	15
2472371342	In what stage of sleep do we see greater than 50% delta waves?	Stage 4	16
2472372901	A period characterized by rapid eye movement during sleep?	REM	17
2472373756	REM is also known as?	paradoxical sleep because its deep sleep in some ways but its light sleep in other ways	18
2472375777	In what stage of sleep do we see irregular, low-voltage, and fast waves	REM	19
2472376863	In what stage of sleep do we see postural muscles of the body more relaxed than in other stages	REM	20
2472378913	T/F: as the sleep cycle progresses REM sleep gets shorter and shorter	False; REM sleep gets longer	21
2472386051	What 4 areas of the brain control the sleep wake cycle?	1. suprachiasmatic nucleus 2. pineal 3. locus coerulus 4. raphe nuclei	22
2472390887	what are the 2 sleep centers of the hypothalamus?	1. posterior hypothalamus (tuberomammillary region) 2. anterior preoptic & basal forebrain of Meynert	23
2472393204	what area of the hypothalamus: -promotes alertness -uses histamine as a neurotransmitter -orexin	posterior hypothalamus	24
2472395814	What area of the hypothalamus: 1. has the suprachiasmatic nucleus that controls the circadian rhythm 2. promotes sleep 3. inhibits the posterior hypothalamus region	anterior preoptic & basal forebrain of Meynert	25
2472401324	what 2 hormones are part of the aminergic activating system?	norepinephrine and serotonin	26
2472402660	what hormone is part of the cholinergic activating system?	acetylcholine	27
2472404025	What would an increases in norepinephrine/serotonin and decrease in acetylecholine do	promote wakefulness	28
2472406350	what would a decrease in norepinephrine/serotonin and increases in acetylcholine do?	promote REM sleep	29
2472408288	what would increase activation of the thalamus, increases histamine, and decrease GABA do?	promote wakefulness	30
2472409752	what would a decreases in activation of the thalamus, decrease histamine and increase GABA do?	promote NREM sleep	31
2472413773	what center controls the activation and inactivation of the thalamus and cortex	hypothalamus and circadian centers	32
2472417629	what neurotransmitter are involved in promoting wakefulness (3)?	acetylcholine, norepinephrine, serotonin	33
2472423365	what neurotransmitter is involved in decreasing sleep	acetylcholine, norephinephrine, serotonin	34
2472429897	what neurotransmitter is involved turning REM sleep on?	acetylecholine	35
2472431522	what neurotransmitters are involved in turning REM sleep off?	serotonin& norepinephrine	36
2472434691	suprachiasmatic nucleus is also known as the	circadian rhythm center	37
2472435638	the circadian rhythm controls	1. genes that produce certain proteins 2. hormone levels = melatonin	38
2472438300	what structure is part of the hypothalamus and the main control center of the circadian rhythm for sleep and temperature	suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)	39
2472440130	if the suprachiasmatic nucleus is damage what can result	less constant body rhythms that are no longer synchronized with the environmental patterns of light and dark	40
2472442512	what 2 types of genes are responsible for generating the circadian rhythm?	Per and Tim gene	41
2472443068	the Per gene controls what?	period of time	42
2472444120	the Tim gene controls what?	timelessness	43
2472444944	mutations on what gene would result in an odd circadian rhythm	Per gene	44
2472446542	the SCN regulates what gland for endocrine control ?	pineal gland	45
2472447593	the pineal gland secretes this hormone ?	melatonin	46
2472449315	What is the term that describes the external cues which help to set the circadian rhythm?	zeitgebers	47
2472450523	what is an important factor for zeitgebers	light	48
2472451117	a human free-running cycle is how long	25 hrs	49
2472455379	what term describes a state of unconsciousness lasting more than 6 hours, the person fails to respond normally to painful stimuli, light, or sound. There is a lack in normal sleep-wake cycle, and there is no voluntary action	coma	50
2472459969	what term describes the absence of brainstem and cerebral function. Sometimes there is a flat EEG for 30 mins and there is a great reduction in cerebral circulation	brain death	51
2472462352	a term that describes things we are aware of that include internal and external with sensory awareness being obvious aspects	conscious experience	52
2472463061	fatigue, thirst, and happiness are all examples of what?	conscious experience	53
2472464331	To avoid distraction of irrelevant stimuli, while focusing on stimuli that are important	selective attention	54
2472465262	process of procedure that occurs in response to a repeated stimulus	habitutation	55
2472466806	a decrease in elicited behavior resulting from repeated presentation of an elicting stimulus	process	56
2472469862	repeated presentation of eliciting stimulus that may result from habitutation, sensitization, or habitual processing	procedure	57
2472472741	the locus coeruleus improves what	information processing for selective attention	58
2472473671	the cerebral cortex helps with attention how?	association area that directs attention and improves info processing during directed attention	59
2472475822	neural damage in the right parietal lobe results in what?	unilateral perception of the visual world	60
2472480601	what term best describes behavior that is directly related to homeostasis?	primary motivated behavior	61
2472481564	what term best describes behavior that is not directly related to homeostasis. Influenced by habit, learning, intellect, and emotions	secondary motivation behavior	62
2472485627	which area of the brain do psychoactive drugs target to change behavior?	mesolimbic dopamine pathway	63
2472489261	what term describes a relationship between an individual and the environment based on the individual's evaluation of the environment?	emotion	64
2472490027	what are the anatomical sites where emotion is controlled (3)	cerebral cortex, forebrain, and limbic system	65
2472491042	emotional behavior is controlled by what ? (2)	hormones and autonomic expression of response	66
2472496296	what is difference between motivation and emotion?	motivation is controlled by habit and what we have learned, whether or not an event is rewarding or penalizes us emotion plays a part in motivation because it affects how we see a situation	67
2472502794	what 4 things does the limbic system control	1. learning 2. motivation 3. appetite 4. emotional response	68
2472504562	what type of memory is associated with actual events in a person's direct experience	declarative memory	69
2472507629	what type of memory is associated with knowledge of the sequence of events and the relationship between events	procedural memory	70
2472509283	short term declarative memory is controlled by?	hippocampus	71
2472511917	long term procedural memory is controlled by	basal nuclei, cerebellum, and sensorimotor cortex	72
2472514165	memory is related to	strength of synaptic connections	73
2472515581	what term says that repeated stimulation of a pathway, increases the synaptic strength of that pathway	Hebbian rules	74
2472535248	what disease involves memory loss in otherwise alert patients and impairment in at least one other area: language, problem solving, attention, or perception	alzheimers dementia	75
2472537858	what 3 factors can lead to Alzheimer's disease?	1. neurofibrillary tangles in the cell due to normal aging 2. large extracellular amyloid plaque 3. loss of cholinergic neurones in the forebrain	76
2472622513	Wernicke's area controls what?	the ability to formulate and processes sentences	77
2472623361	broca's areas controls what?	the ability to speak and form words	78
2472712528	what happens if the wernicke's area is damaged?	you can still speak but your sentences will not make sense, you will add in or leave out certain works and you cannot comprehend other people's sentences	79
2472714987	what happens if the broca's area is damaged?	you will not be able to speak correctly, there will be halting speech, disordered grammar, but you can fully understand what others are saying	80
2472720443	term that describes an increase amount of drug needed for decreasing effects	tolerance	81
2472721579	term that describes symptoms that appear upon the stopped usage of a drug	withdrawal	82
2472727867	what is the mechanism for tolerance and withdrawal?	1. the drug will decrease the secretion of the endogenous ligand 2. increasing its degradation by enzymes or down regulation of receptors 3. the messenger lessens over time and more and more drug will be required to get the same affects 4. when a person stops using there will be a lower amount of activity in the neurotransmitter pathway which will bring on withdrawal	83
2472733464	Mushrooms and dimethyltryptamine is similar to which neurotransmitter?	serotonin	84
2472734995	speed and adderall are similar to which neurotransmitter?	dopamine	85
2472743495	a term that describes the disturbance in the ability to communicate	aphasia	86
2472744101	language is controlled by what side of the brain?	left side	87

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Combo with Campbell Biology 9th Edition - Chapter 21 and 1 other Flashcards

Campbell Biology 9th Edition - Chapter 21 Flashcards

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