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Campbell 7th Edition - Chapter 19 Eukaryotic Genomes: Organization, Regulation, and Evolution Flashcards

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1242824964What is the order of packaging of DNA from first to last?Histones to Nucelosomes to 30 nanometer chromatin to loops to chromosome.0
1242824966The following are characteristics of histones.1. Are responsible for the first level of DNA packing in chromatin. 2. Are in groups of 8 histones per nucleosome. 3. Have protein unit H 1 linker protein.1
1242824968Levels of regulation of gene expression are:1. Chromatin Structure 2. Transcription Initiation 3. Post-transcription2
1242824970Histone modificationChemical modification of histone tails can affect the configuration of chromatin by exposing DNA and thus allowing gene expression.3
1242824972What is histone acetylation?Acetylation of histone tails promotes loosening chromatin structure that permits transcription, by removing the positive charge of the histone, decreasing the interaction with the negative charges of the DNA phosphate backbone.4
1242824974What is histone methylation?Histone methylation is in general associated with transcription repression, such as methylation of cytosine.5
1242824976Epigenetic inheritanceInheritance that is Non-mendelian, non-mutational, not based on DNA sequence.6
1242824978Transcription factorsproteins that Assist DNA polymerase in transcription.7
1242824980ActivatorsProtein that binds to enhancer regions also called distal control elements and speed up the rate of transcription.8
1242824982RepressorsProtein that binds to silencer regions and slow down the rate of transcription.9
1242824984Basal transcription factors.Position RNA polymerase at the start position for to initiate transcription.10
1242824986CoactivatorsAssist in signal transmission of activators or repressors.11
1242824988Post-Transcriptional Regulations include:1. RNA processing 2. mRNA degradation (miRNAs) 3. Initiation of translation 4. Protein processing and degradation12
1242824990alternative RNA splicingDescribes when different mRNA molecules are produced from the same primary transcript, depending on which RNA segments are treated as exons and which as introns.13
1242824993microRNAs (miRNAs)single stranded, small segments of RNA that attach to mRNA to disable transcription or degrade the mRNA14
1242824995Proteasomesgiant protein complexes that bind protein molecules and degrade them, example Ubiquitin.15
1242824997Cancer-causing genesOncogenes16
1242824999Proto-oncogenesNormal cellular genes that code for proteins for normal cell growth and division but if mutated becomes oncogene.17
1242825001Four ways to convert a proto-oncogene to an onco gene:1. translocation of gene to new locus. 2.excessive gene amplification. 3. point mutation within a controlling element. 4. point mutation within the gene.18
1242825003Tumor-suppressor genesEncode proteins that inhibit abnormal cell division, example is p53 gene.19
1242825005Ras gene Ras pathwayA cell stimulating pathway that when mutated can cause uncontrolled stimulation of cells.20
1242825007p53 geneA tumor suppressor. A cell inhibiting pathway that blocks DNA replication of damaged DNA, when mutated is unable to block DNA replication of damaged DNA, leading to excessive growth and cancer.21
1242825009Transposable ElementsAlso known as transposons, jumping genes, are DNA segments that can change its position within a genome.22
1242825011RetrotransposonsJumping genes which move within a genome by means of an RNA intermediate.23
1242825013The classic examples of multigene families of nonidentical genes.Alpha and Beta Hemoglobins, each from a different gene family, from chromosome 16 and 11..24
1242825016DNA mutationsUnderlies much of genome evolution25
1242825018Transposable elementsMay be involved in genome evolution; they constitute two-thirds of the human genome.26
1245521626Fetal programmingFetus is exposed to prenatal environment that modifies gene expression.27

Campbell Reece 7th Edition Ch. 18 Vocab Flashcards

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1066841409VirusA very small infectious particle consisting of nucleic acid enclosed in a protein coat and often a membranous envelope. They are metabolically inert and only replicate in a living host.0
1066841410VirologyThe study of viruses and the diseases caused by them.1
1066841411VirionThe infective form of a virus that exists outside of its host.2
1066841412CapsidProtein shell that encloses the viral genome. They're built from subunits called capsomeres.3
1066841413Viral envelopeA lipid bilayer derived from the host cell and one that increases the infectivity of a virus.4
1066841414Bacteriophage (phage)Viruses that infect bacteria.5
1066841415Host RangeA limited number of host cells that it can infect.6
1066841416Helical Viral ShapeA virus that has its capsid shaped into a rod-shaped structure.7
1066841417Icosahedral Viral ShapeA virus consisting of identical subunits that make up equilateral triangles that are, in turn, arranged in a symmetrical fashion.8
1066841418Prolate Viral ShapeA variant of the icosahedral viral shape and is found in bacteriophages.9
1066841419AttachmentThe process of viral capsid or envelope proteins attaching to the receptors on a target cell.10
1066841420PenetrationThe process of entering a host, through several mechanisms.11
1066841421UncoatingA process whereupon the viral capsid is removed in order to release the viral nucleic acid into the host.12
1066841422ReplicationA process whereby a virus uses its host to copy its genome, generate and assemble a protein capsid, and thereby reproduce itself.13
1066841423ProvirusTerm for when the viral genome is integrated into, and replicates along with, the host's genome. This is specific to viruses that infect animal cells.14
1066841424ProphageThe phage DNA that is integrated into the bacterial DNA.15
1066841425Lysogenic Cycle (Latent Infection)When a prophage is passively replicated along with its host's genome. Phage nucleic acid will integrate into the bacterial genome.16
1066841426Temperate PhagePhages capable of using both modes of reproducing within a bacterium.17
1066841427Lytic CycleA process of viral replication that leads to formation of viral progeny and the potential lysis, or destruction, of the host cell.18
1066841428Virulent PhageA phage that reproduces only by a lytic cycle.19
1066841429ReleaseA process whereby viruses are expelled out of their host cell via exocytosis, apoptosis, cell bursting, or budding.20
1066841430Positive-SenseA strand of viral RNA that can immediately serve as a template for protein synthesis during the process of translation.21
1066841431Negative-SenseA strand of viral RNA that must first be converted into complementary positive sense strands before creating proteins.22
1066841432PolymeraseAn important enzyme that makes strands of polynucleotides in order to help the virus produce vital proteins and help replicate its genome for the production of virus babies.23
1066841433Baltimore Classification SystemThe grouping of viruses by their type of specific genome.24
1066841434Reverse TranscriptaseA polymerase that uses an intermediate nucleic acid different from that of the original viral nucleic acid to replicate the viral genome. Viral RNA is converted into viral DNA.25
1066841435Genetic AssortmentA process whereby two viruses mix and match parts of their genome.26
1066841436Tail FibersEnds of some bacteriophages that aid in injecting the viral nucleic acid into a bacterial cell like a syringe.27
1066841437PandemicOutbreaks of infectious diseases that spread over very large distances in more than one continent and even worldwide.28
1066841438RetrovirusIt has an RNA genome that it uses as a template to make double-stranded DNA, which is then incorporated into the host genome.29
1066841439Restriction EnzymesSpecific enzymes that recognize and cut up certain phage DNA to defend bacteria from phages.30
1066841440PlasmidsCircular DNA in bacteria and yeasts.31
1066841441TransposonsSmall mobile DNA segments.32
1066841442Vaccinesharmless derivatives of pathogenic microbes that stimulate the immune system to mount defenses against the actual pathogen.33
1066841443Horizontal TransmissionOne way plant viruses spread diseases by entering through damaged cell walls.34
1066841444Vertical TransmissionOne way plant viruses spread diseases by inheriting the virus from a parent.35
1066841445ViroidsCircular RNA molecules that infect plants and disrupt their growth.36
1066841446PrionsSlow-acting, virtually indestructible infectious proteins that cause brain diseases in mammals.37
1066841447TransformationThe alteration of a bacterial cell's genotype and phenotype by taking up freely floating DNA found in the environment.38
1066841448TransductionPhages carry bacterial genes from one host cell to another.39
1066841449ConjugationThe direct transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells that are temporarily joined by a pilus.40
1066841450Vertical Gene TransferWhen DNA is passed from mother to offspring cell.41
1066841451Horizontal Gene TransferRefers to the ability of some bacterial cells to acquire new genes from neighboring cells in their environment. 3 types of this transfer are transformation, transduction, and conjugation.42
1066841452PilusA protein-based, hair-like structure that extends from the bacterial cell.43
1066841453Competent CellsBacterial cells that are able to take up free-floating DNA from the environment.44
1066841454Generalized TransductionA virus randomly chops up the host chromosome and accidentally packages chunks of the genome, transferring them to new host cells.45
1066841455Specialized TransductionInstead of just hijacking and killing the cell, the viral DNA goes dormant by incorporating itself into the bacterial DNA chromosome. The host cell survives and continues to grow and divide, passing on the incorporated viral DNA to the clone offspring cells.46
1066841456R PlasmidsConfer resistance to various antibiotics.47
1066841457Gene ExpressionIn multicellular eukaryotes, it regulates development and is responsible for differences in cell types.48
1066841458OperonThe entire stretch of DNA that includes the operator, the promoter, and the genes that they control.49
1066841459OperatorRegulatory "switch" is a segment of DNA.50
1066841460RepressorPrevents gene transcription as it binds to the operator and blocks RNA polymerase.51
1066841461CorepressorA molecule that cooperates with a repressor protein to switch an operon off.52
1066841462InducerA molecule that begins gene expression.53
1066841463Regulatory GeneCodes for the repressor.54
1066841464Repressible OperonAn operon that is usually on; binding of a repressor to the operator shuts off transcription. (Ex: trp operon)55
1066841465Inducible OperonAn operon that is usually off; a molecule called an inducer inactivates the repressor and turns on transcription. (Ex: lac operon)56
1066841466Negative Gene RegulationOperons are switched off by the active form of the repressor.57
1066841467Positive Gene RegulationOperons are also subject to positive control through a stimulatory protein, like CAP, is an activator of transcription.58

Blood Bank Quizzes Flashcards

All 110 Blood Bank Quiz questions

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542415701One bag of red blood cells will increase the hemoglobin by what amount1 gm/dL0
542415702Which of the following components has ALL of the coagulation factorsFresh frozen plasma1
542415703One bag of random donor platelets will increase the platelet count by how much5000 to 10,000/uL2
542415704Which component must be stored with constant shakingPlatelets3
542415705If a bag of leukoreduced red blood cells is washed, how long is this product good24 hours from the start of the washing procedure.4
542415706Cryoprecipitate Antihemophilic Factor that is harvested from fresh frozen plasma can be used to treat which coagulation factor deficienciesFactor I Factor VIII Factor XIII5
542415707If there is no blood that is tested CMV negative, which of the following is considered CMV "safe"Leukoreduced components6
542415708If a patient receives a bag of single donor platelets and his platelet count does not increase (In fact, it sometimes decreases.), we say he may be refractory to platelets. How do we attempt to overcome this refractorinessTransfuse HLA matched platelets7
542415709All blood that is drawn in CPD or CP2D can have its storage time extended by adding an additive solution (also called Adsol and Adenine Solution). When this is added within 72 hours of the unit's being drawn, what will be the new expiration date42 days and no more.8
542415710If a unit of whole blood is drawn in CPDA-1, how long can it be stored and used35 days9
542415711What is the minimum hemoglobin for allogeneic blood donations12.5 g/dL10
542415712How much anticoagulant/preservative must be in a standard bag to draw 450 mLs of whole blood63 mL11
542415713What is the minimum and maximum milliliters of blood that can be drawn in a standard bag405 to 495 mLs12
542415714What is the minimum weight to be an allogeneic blood donor110 pounds13
542415715What is the minimum hemoglobin and hematocrit for autologous donations11 gm/dL and 33%14
542415716What is the pulse range for an allogeneic blood donor50 to 100 beats per minute15
542415717What is the systolic blood pressure limits for an allogeneic donorLess than or equal to 18016
542415718What is the upper age limit at which a person can have had hepatitis and still be an allogeneic blood donor10 years of age17
542415719If a donor is hooked to a machine and only one component is harvested from him, he is said to be donating by what techniqueApheresis18
542415720A person who donates blood with the intent that he will receive his own blood during a future surgery is called what kind of donorAutologous19
542415721If the antibody screen is positive after the addition of AHG and all crossmatched units are compatible after AHG, what is a probable causeAn alloantibody is present20
542415722When a clinically significant alloantibody is identified in the patient's serum, what is done prior to transfusing the unitConfirm that the donor cells are negative for the antigen specific for the patient's antibody by testing the donor cells with commercial antisera. Perform a crossmatch using AHG21
542415723If a patient's sample is positive with all cells (screens, auto, and crossmatches) after 37oC incubation, but negative after the addition of AHG, what could be the causeRouleaux22
542415724If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but all the crossmatched units are incompatible at all phases, what may be the causeThe patient was incorrectly ABO typed.23
542415725If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but one of the crossmatched units is incompatible after adding AHG, what may be the causeThe patient may have an alloantibody to a low frequency antigen present on that one donor's cells24
542415726If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but one of the crossmatched units is incompatible at immediate spin, what may be the causeThe patient's serum may have anti-M25
542415727If a patient's serum sample is positive with all cells (screens, auto and donor cells) after the addition of AHG, what test will be your clue that there is something in the serum reacting with something in the entire test systemThe direct antiglobulin test on the patient's cells26
542415728If a patient's serum reacts with the diluent in the commercial cells, what can be done to resolve the problemWash the commercial cells to remove the diluent and retest Perform the antibody screen with the cells from another manufacturer Suspend the patient's cells in the commercial diluent that accompanies each panel and retest. If this is positive, it proves that the diluent is the problem.27
542415729What is the protocol for transfusing neonatesThey are given O negative cells of their own Rh type28
542415730When a clinically insignificant alloantibody is identified in the patient's serum, what is done prior to transfusing the unitPerform a crossmatch using AHG29
542415731What is the cause of febrile transfusion reactionsLeukoctye antibodies present in the patient's plasma that react with leukocytes in the blood30
542415732Which of the following antibodies are implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactionsAnti-A1, anti-P1, anti-Jk(a)31
542415733Urticarial transfusion reactions have no definitive cause, but it is thought IgE is involved. What are the symptomspruritus hives erythema32
542415734TRALI and TACO have similar symptoms, but they differ by which of the followingTACO patients suffer from hypervolemia and TRALI patients do not.33
542415735Which of the following is an iatrogenic transfusion reaction(If you want to get technical, I guess you could say they are all iatrogenic, but your text does focus on one.)Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload34
542415736What is the first procedure to be done in the laboratory investigation of a transfusion reactionClerical check on all the paper work.35
542415737If the Direct antiglobulin test is positive due to IgG, how will this look microscopically and what test must be done to identify the IgG antibody on the cellsIt will look mixed field microscopically and the IgG antibody must be eluted from the cells. Test this eluate against a panel to identify the antibody.36
542415738If a patient has febrile transfusion reactions, how are future transfusions handledLeukoreduce the cellular products to be infused.37
542415739What must be done to prevent graft-versus-host diseaseIrradiate the cellular products to be infused.38
542415740If a patient has anaphylactic transfusion reactions, how are future transfusions handledWash the cellular products to be infused.39
542415741For both the DAT and the IAT the cell button should be washed at least three times prior to adding AHG. WhyTo remove globulins from the serum/plasma surrounding the cells40
542415742The amount of antigen present on a cell influences the first stage of agglutination. Which of the following cells has the most antigenA cell that is homozygous for the antigen41
542415743What is antihuman globulinAn IgG antibody against human globulin42
542415744What is the ABO type of check cellsO43
542415745What is the first stage of agglutination calledSensitization44
542415746What is the purpose of the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)To detect in vivo sensitized red blood cells45
542415747When performing a DAT, a control consisting of 6% albumin is run concurrently. What is the result of the controlThe control should always be negative.46
542415748Which immunoglobulin class is the blood banker most interested inIgG47
542415749Which of the following clinical applications uses the DATHemolytic Transfusion Reactions (HTR)48
542415750If a patient has anti-Fy(a) in his serum, he must receive red blood cells that are negative for the Fy(a) antigen. What percent of the Caucasian population is negative for the Fy(a) antigen35%49
542415751If a person has the Le, se and H genes, what substance(s) are in his body fluidsOnly Le(a) blood group substance50
542415752Select the cell below that should be used for the positive control when testing commercially prepared anti-Fy(a)Fy(a+b+)51
542415753What do the following antigens have in common Js(b), U, I, Yt(a)All are high frequency antigens52
542415754What do the following antibodies have in common Anti-N, anti-P1, anti-Le(a)All are considered clinically insignificant All are usually IgM53
542415755What do the following antigens have in common Fy(a), M, N, SAll are destroyed when treated with an enzyme54
542415756What do the following antigens have in common k, Kp(b), Js(b)All are antigens in the Kell Blood Group System All are high frequency antigens. All are destroyed when treated with a thiol-reducing agent.55
542415757Which of the following antibodies reacts best in an acidic environmentAnti-M56
542415758Which of the following blood group systems produces antibodies that do not cause hemolytic disease of the newbornLewis57
542415759Which of the following antibodies reacts with the same strength through all dilutions of the serum until it becomes negativeAnti-Rg58
542415760Which of the following lectins will discern group A1 cells from A2 cellsDolichos biflorus59
542415761Upon initial typing, the cells from a person with the Bombay phenotype will appear to be which ABO typeGroup O60
542415762What percent cell suspension is used when testing cells for ABO antigens4%61
542415763The commercially prepared anti-A and anti-B areMonoclonal antibodies IgM antibodies Prepared with a colored dye added62
542415764If a person has the Se gene, the A gene and the B gene, what blood group substances will be found in his body fluidsD. A, B and H blood group substance.63
542415765If both the mom and the dad are Group O, what will be the ABO type of their offspringAll of the offspring will be Group O.64
542415766If a person has only H blood group substance, what antigens will be found on his red cellsH antigens only65
542415767If a patient is blood type A, which of the following antibodies are in his serum/plasmaAnti-B66
542415768Which of the following carbohydrates are needed to produce blood type BFucose and Galactose67
542415769If a patient is blood type O, which of the following antigens are on his cellsH antigen only68
542415770False positive results and false negative results can be obtained by sloppy technique. Which of the following causes a false positive resultBacterial contamination of the reagent69
542415771If a cell is positive for the antigens D, C, E, c and e, what is the most probable Rh phenotypeR1R270
542415772If a patient has a weakly expressed D antigen, how is it detectedBy the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)71
542415773What antibodies in the Rh system can be made by a person whose Rh phenotype is R1R1Anti-c and anti-E72
542415774Anti-LW is negative (does not react) with which of the following cellsRhnull cells73
542415775If a person's most probable Rh phenotype is R1R1, what is that in Fisher-Race nomenclature and in RosenfieldCDe/CDe Rh: 1, 2, -3, -4, 574
542415776What percent of the caucasian population is negative for the D antigen15%75
542415777If a dad is R1R2 and the mom is rr, what percent of the offspring will be positive for the D antigen100%76
542415778Which of the following Rh typing reagents must ALWAYS be used with a controlHigh protein anti-D77
542415779If a cell is positive for the c and e antigens and negative for the D, C and E antigens, what is the most probable Rh phenotyperr78
542415780A person can make an alloantibody as a result ofexposure to a foreign antigen through a blood transfusion exposure to a foreign antigen through pregnancy exposure to a foreign antigen in the environment79
542415781Choose the correct statement below regarding screening cells and panel cells.Screening cells include 3 separate vials and a panel includes 8-20 vials.80
542415782Commercially prepared red blood cells for the purpose of detecting unexpected antibodies in serum/plasma aretyped for 18 common antigens81
542415783If the antibody screen is positive after the addition of AHG and the autocontrol is negative after the addition of AHG, this means thatan alloantibody is present.82
542415784The procedure used to detect and identify clinically significant antibodies is theindirect antiglobulin test83
542415785To be sure that a tech is 95% confident when identifying an antibody, how many cells, at the very least, must be positive for the antigen and yield a positive result and how many cells must be negative for the antigen and yield a negative result3 positive and 3 negative84
542415786What is the characteristic of a clinically significant antibodyIt is IgG.85
542415787Which is a low frequency antigenJs(a)86
542415788Which of the following antigens are destroyed by enzymes such as ficin or bromelinFy(a), Fy(b), S87
542415789Which of the following phenotypes is homozygous for the Fy(a) antigenFy(a+b-)88
542415790What is the minimal information that must be on a properly labeled tube of blood that will be used for compatibility testingPatient's full name, unique identification number and date drawn89
542415791If a patient is receiving saline by IV, where should the phlebotomist stick the patientDraw the blood below the IV line90
542415792Which of the following methods can be used to overcome a delay in clot formation when a patient has a prolonged clotting timeAdd liquid thrombin to the tube of blood Add dry thrombin to the tube of blood Add glass beads to the tube of blood91
542415793Why is it important to check for previous recordsTo know if a clinically significant antibody was identified92
542415794Full compatibility testing consists ofABO (cells and serum) and Rh typing of the sample and ABO cell typing of the donor An antibody screen at 37oC and AHG on the patient's serum/plasma A major crossmatch consisting of mixing patient's serum with donor cells93
542415795When is it permissible to do only an immediate spin crossmatchWhen there is no history of a clinically significant antibody and no clinically significant antibody is detected in the current sample.94
542415796If there is no time to determine a patient's ABO and Rh type because he is profusely bleeding, what ABO/Rh type should be transfusedGroup O, Rh negative95
542415797After a sample is drawn from the patient, how long can the lab continue to crossmatch from72 hours96
542415798How long must the sample be stored following a transfusion of the patientSeven days after the last transfusion97
542415799At what temperature should the patient's sample and the segment from the bag of blood be stored1 to 6 degrees Celsius98
542415800We find ABO hemolytic disease most often in babies born to moms who are which ABO typeGroup O99
542415801Anti-Le(a) is usually IgM, but sometimes it can be IgG; however it will not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. WhyThe cells of newborns are Le(a-b-)100
542415802What portion of the IgG molecule functions to move the molecule across the placentaFc portion101
542415803How are the sensitized cells of the unborn destroyed in vivoThe baby's macrophages remove the sensitized cells which are destroyed in his spleen.102
542415804What is considered a significant difference in the titer of two samples when they are being comparedMore than a two tube difference103
542415805ABO and Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn each have unique distinguishing characteristics. Which of the following red cell shapes is unique to ABO HDNSpherocytosis104
542415806Which of the following are essential criteria when transfusing the unborn childThe red blood cells must be irradiated The red blood cells must be as fresh as possible (Usually no more than 5 days old) The cells must be negative for hemoglobin S.105
542415807If the qualitative test for a feto-maternal bleed is negative, how many vials of Rh Immune Globulin must be injected into the momOne because she is a candidate; that's why the test was done.106
542415808A mom is group O positive and has anti-Fy(a), anti-K and anti-E. The baby is group A neg and has a positive DAT. The eluate from the baby's cells shows anti-Fy(a). Knowing that any blood transfused to this newborn must be compatible with the mom's serum, select the correct blood type to transfuse this infant.Group O, Rh negative and negative for E, K and Fy(a) antigens107
542415809If a Group A negative mom received antenatal Rh Immune Globulin at 28 weeks gestation, what is the specificity of the antibody that may be identified in her serum at delivery?Anti-D108
542415810Cells from which of the following tubes may give a false positive DAT due to C3 sensitizing the cells in vitro?Clotted—red stoppered109

immunohematology Flashcards

MLT certification exam

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984499619Collection of donor blood- Follows registration, medical history, and physical examination - Preparation of venipuncture site will minimize the risk of bacterial contamination: drawing will be with aseptic techniques - Scrub site for minimum 30 seconds0
984499620Maximum collectionNo more than 10.5 mL of whole blood per kilogram of body1
984499621Medications evaluated by MDPlatelets from donors who have taken medication within 48hrs that irreversibly affect platelet function (aspirin) must not be used as the Only source of platelets (can be part of a pool of platelets)2
984520482criteria for donor selection-Age: >16 yrs minimum or conform to state law, no max -Temp: ≤37.5°C or ≤99.5 °F -Blood pressure: ≤180 systolic and ≤100 diastolic -Hgb/Hct: ≥ 12.5g / ≥ 38% -Pulse: 50-100 beats/min -Weight: minimum 110lb/ 50 kg3
984520483ACD/CPD/CPD2Anticoagulant 21 day expiration4
984520484CPDA-1Anticoagulant 35 day expiration5
984520485Additive solutions42 day expiration6
984520486Rejuvenating solution- Restores 2,3-DPG and ATP - Can freeze unit or if used in 24hrs, can be stored at 1-6C - must wash cells before transfusion to remove solution7
984520487Autologous DonationsDonations to self: no age limit Hct - 33%, Hbg- 11 g/dL No bacteremia Preoperative collection must be labeled for autologous use only and used only for this patient Autologous units - segregate from allogeniec units8
984558791Low volume collectionAutologous donations -use regular blood bags; volume drawn <10.5 mL/kg body weight for minimum weight (450 + 45 mL plus testing sample) - If 300-404 mL drawn, label as Red Blood Cells Low Volume (components may not be made from these units) - If < 300 mL drawn, use proportionately less anticoagulant9
984558792Example low volume donor70lb/110l X 450ml (standard donation) = 286 ml -If donor weight in kg, divide weight by 50 instead of 110 and then multiple by 450 -Amount of anticoagulant to use: 286 X 14% = amt of anticoag 286 X .14 = 40; 40ml -Amount of anticoagulant to take out 63-40 = 23ml: remove 23ml of anticoagulant from primary bag into attached satellite bag prior to draw10
984558793Blood salvageinoperative collections "salvaged" blood collected during surgery, washed on-site and returned to patient during procedure11
984671866Apheresis termsCytapheresis - Cells Plasmapheresis- plasma Plateletpheresis - platelets Leuka/granulocytapheresis - Leukocytes/granulocytes12
984671867Hemapheresis/Apheresis collection-Donor criteria same as for whole blood - limited number of donor exposure - Apheresis instruments can selectively remove needed component and return components not needed.13
984671868CytapheresisPlatelets, granulocytes and leukocytes - donations at least 2 days apart and no more than 2 days in any 7 days - If RBC cannot be returned, must wait 8 weeks RBCs - A two unit RBC donation must not decrease donors hematocrit below 30% or hemoglobin below 10g/dl Hematopoetic progenitor cells - Can be collected from peripheral circulation14
984671869Therapeutic-Removal of pathogenic substance (platelets, leukocytes, plasma substances) - Immunoadsorption removes specific substances from plasma via antigen-antibody or chemical reactions (IgG or immune complexes)15
984671870Hematopoeitic progenitor and stem cells- used to reconstitute bone marrow post chemotherapy/irradiation or to replace abnormal marrow cells with normal marrow cells (congenital immune deficiencies, anemia's, malignant disorders of bone marrow, red cell disorders) - Cells obtained from bone marrow, umbilical cord blood and peripheral blood (apheresis) -Allogeneic marrow - HLA - identical match lowers GVHD risk; ABO compatibility not required16
984671871Tests performed on donor blood*ABO - Resolve discrepancies *Rh - Weak D determination on D negatives *Antibody screen - Clinically significant antibodies: FFP cannot be prepared from these units: platelets and cryoprecipitate can (contain minimum plasma) *Syphilis- Serologic test such as RPR *Vial diseases - HBsAG, Anti-HBc, Anti-HCV, Anti-HIV 1/2, Anti-HTLV-I/II and NAT for HIV-1 RNA, HCV RNA and West nile RNA17
984671872Whole blood-Given in cases of severe shock (blood loss ≥ 25% blood volume) needing rbc's for oxygen and plasma for volume -Rarely used due to increased use and availability of components18
984671873Red Blood cells (packed cells)- Red cells with plasma removed - Provides same oxygen carrying capacity as whole blood with less volume - < 80% hct (indicates sufficient plasma removal); 55-65% hct if additive solution used - 1 unit raises hemoglobin - hbg - 1g or hematocrit -hct- 3%19
984671874Washed red cells- Plasma removed by successive saline washes (automated instruments) - Prevents allergic response to plasma proteins and anaphylactic shock in IgA deficient patients with anti-IgA (IgA is in normal plasma) - Expires 24 hours after seal of original unit broken20
984671875Leukocyte reduced red cells- 85% of red cells retained - Final wbc count < 5 X 10^6 to prevent febrile nonhemolytic reactions and for other uses ( to prevent CMV transmission) - Preparation by filtration preferred: washing will remove leukocytes also - Used primarily for patients with repeated febrile nonhemolytic (FNH) reactions; Usually due to presence of cytokines released from white cells or alloimmunization to HLA or leukocyte anitgen21
984687666Frozen cells/ Deglycerolyzed cells- Cells protected from ultra low temperatures by cryoprotective agent (40% glycerol) - Must be thawed at 37°C and glycerol removed prior to transfusion - 80% of original red cells must be recovered - Used for storage of autologous units and "rare" units - expire in 10 years - Stored at ≤ -65; 1-6°C for 24Hours after deglycerolizing (open system)22
984687667Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)-Prepared by separating cells and plasma by centrifugation and freezing plasma within 8 hours of collection -Expires 1 year from date of collection when stored at ≤ -18°C or 7 years stored at ≤ -65°C -Once thawed (between 30-37°C), expires in 24 hours, if stored at 1-6°C - Used for multiple coagulation deficiencies, factor XI deficiency and other congenital deficiencies for which no concentrate is available23
984687668Cryoprecipitate (cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor)- When FFP frozen within 8 hours of whole blood collection is thawed at 1-6°C, a cold insoluble portion of plasma forms - CRYO - CRYO- is separated from thawed FFP and refrozen within one hour - Must contain ≥150mg of fibrinogen and ≥80 IU/bag of factor VIII - Also contains vWF, facor XIII and fibronectin - Store at ≤ -18°C for 1 year from date of phlebotomy: RT after thawing -tranfuse within 6 hours of thawing; 4 hours after pooling24
984695876Cryoprecipitate used for?-Fibrinogen and Factor XIII deficiencies - Severe von Willebrand disease ( some factor VIII concentrates contain vWF) - Topical fibrin sealant - Seldom used for hemophilia because of factor VIII concentrates which have little or no risk of viral infection transmission25
984695877Factor Concentrates/Recombinant products- Concentrates are prepared from plasma pools that are tested by NAT and processed to inactivate and remove pathogens - ↑ levels of specific factors with minimal volume compared to FFP - Hemophilia A - treat severe with recombinant Factor VIII and mild with DDAVP (stimulates endogenous Factor VIII release) - Hemophilia B - treat with recombinant Factor IX - Inhibitors to Factor VIII- recombinant Factor VII (rFVIIa) approved for use to bypass Factor VIII - von Willebrand disease - treat with factor VII concentrates that have vWF; Mile cases treat with DDAVP26
984695878Platelets preparation from whole blood-Prepared from whole blood (stored at 20-24°C prior to precessing) - First a light spin- to remove red cells, followed by heavy centrifugation - to spin down platelets and white cells -Supernatant plasma is expressed into another bag and may be frozen (FFP) - Remaining plasma, platelets and WBC = platelets27
984820381Platelet conditions-For severe thrombocytopenia and platelet dysfunction - Prophylactic use of platelets when platelet count is low is controversial - threshold depends on patient's risk of bleeding - Contraindicated in TTP and heparin-induced thrombocytophenia28
984820382Platelet donor on drugsPlatelets from donors who are within 48 hrs of taking drugs (aspirin) that impair platelet function should not be used as a single source.29
984820383Platelet refractorinessLack of expected response - Antibodies to HLA class I antigens - Platelet antibodies or neutrophil/lymphocyte antibodies30
984820384Platelet transfusion- 1 unit of platelets should raise platelet count 5,000-10,000 in average sized adult -Do not transfuse through a microaggregate filter - Only one ABO type/pool: expires 4 hours after pooling in an open system31
984820385Platelet QC-pH ≥ 6.2 at end of storage: stored in volume of plasma necessary to maintain pH, usually 30-70 cc - > 5.5X10^10 platelets/unit in 75% or > 3X10^11 platelets/plateletpheresis in 90% of units tested - Store continuously rotating at 20-24° C RT - Outdate depends on type of bag used - Individual leukoreduced platelets- <8.3X10^5 leukocytes; Leukoreduced pooled platelets or plateletpheresis product - <5X10^6 leukocytes - Must be checked for bacteria before issuing32
984820386Infant platelet transfusionTransfuse ABO compatible to infant33
984820387D pos plateletsMay have some residual RBC's - consider administering RhIg to D neg women of childbearing age who have received D pos platelets34
984820388Grandulocytes-Usually obtained by apheresis - Decline in use due to new antibiotics, recombinant growth factors and adverse effects from granulocyte transfusion (acute lung injury) - used for neutropenic patients with documented gram negative sepsis who have not responded to antibiotics - Can transmit CMV, induce HLA immunization and cause GVHD, if not irradiated - Stored without agitation at 20-24°C for up to 24hrs, but should be transfused ASAP - ABO-compatible with recipient35
984854476irradiated blood and components-Prevents graft (donor lymphocytes) vs. host disease (GVHD) by inactivating donor lymphocytes - Recommended for anyone at risk of transfusion associated GVHD; fetus receiving intrauterine transfusion; donor is blood relative of recipient; donor is HLA matched - Minimum of 25 Gy (2500 cGy) - RBC's expired on original outdate or 28 days after irradiation, whichever is first36
984854477How much anticoagulant/bag?63ml37
984854478What is expiration dates based on?Expiration based on expectation of 75% of transfused cells will be in circulation 24hrs after transfusion38
984854479What happens to plasma while in storage?↑ NH4 and K+ ↓ pH and Na+39
984854480Transporting blood and components- Red cells kept at 1-10°C - Platelets and granulocytes kept at 20-24°C - Frozen components kept frozen40
984854481Expiration of blood/components when seal is broken-Products stored at 1-6°C = 24hrs - products stored at 20-24°C = 4hrs41
984854482Pooling components-If red cells visible in pooled product, patient plasma antibodies should be compatible with those red cells - Expiration of pooled components a. Platelets- 4hrs - open system b. Cryoprecipitate- 4 hrs - open system42
984854483Return of unit bloodUnit blood cannot be returned and reissued if >10°C (RT 15-30min) or if seal disturbed43
984868158What are ABO antigensImmunodominant sugar on cell surface44
984921315Subgroups of AA1 and A2 - Principle subgroups of A - Serological difference based on reactivity with anit-A1 (dolichos biflorus or human anti-A1). Dolichos biflorus- lectin - plant or seed extract diluted to agglutinate specific human blood group antigens) - A1 cells are agglutinated - A2 cells are not agglutinated Other subgroups - A3, Ax - contain less A antigen and more H antigen45
984921316Bombay PhenotypeLack of H is genetically hh = bombay - hh has no fucose which is needed for attachment of A or B sugars - cell types as O - Anti-H lectin (Ulex europaeus) will not agglutinate bombay cells (hh) but will agglutinate O cells (Hh or Hh)46
984921317Se geneSecretor - allows expression of A, B, H and Leb in body fluids47
984921318Le antigensLe antigens are plasma antigens which adsorb onto red cells as individuals mature - Individual with H and Le (but not Se gene) genes will have H and Lea on red cells and Lea only in saliva- Se not needed for presnece of Lea in saliva but it is for H - Individual who has h, Se and Le genes will have H and Leb on the red cells and H, Leb and decreased amounts of Lea in the body fluids48
984921319Cell typing- Unknown cells + antisera = no agglutination a. Cells lack antigen to which antisera (reagent antibody) corresponds - Unknown cells + antisera = agglutination a. Cells possess antigen to which antisera corresponds49
989049291Serum TypingReverse typing - Testing is performed at RT with saline suspended known group A1 and B red cells - Optimum reactivity of serum anti-A and anti-B is 4C -Unknown serum + reagent red cells = No agglutination a. Serum lacks antibody to antigen on red cell - Unknown serum + reagent red cells = Agglutination a. Serum has antibody to antigen on red cells50
989049292Rouleuax (red cells)Failure to wash cells - Repeat with saline washed cells51
989049293Mixture of cell types (red cells)-Example - A or B transfused with O cells - Check transfusion history52
989049294Subgroups (red cells)- A2 with or without anti-A1 - Test with Anti-A1 for A subgroups53
989049295Unusual Genotypes (red cells)- Bombay - Test with Anti-H for bombay (not agglutinate) Bombay serum will agglutinate A1 and B cells as well as Group O screening cells54
989049296Disease processes (red cells)- Leukemia or bacteria (acquired B phenomenon) - Check patient diagnosis - Id beyond scope of this review55
989049297Rouleaux (serum)- Due to increased serum proteins - Waldenstrom's or multiple myeloma - Saline replacement56
989049298Room Temp or cold reacting antibody- H, I, M, N, P1 or lewis or anti-A1 in an A2 or A2B individual - React with corresponding antigens on reverse cells - Mini cold screen or panel (test at lower temps)57
989049299Age- Elderly (antibody production has decreased) - Newborn (antibody production has not reached optimum levels - Missing antibodies - check patient age, Mini cold panel (may enhance serum Anti-A or B so interpretation will agree with cell grouping)58
989049300Comprised immune system- Hypogammaglobulinemia - Check patient diagnosis - Mini cold panel59
989049301Saline replacementPrinciple: Differentiate rouleaux (aggregation) from agglutination. - Roulauex = stack of coins60
989049302Antigens of Rh systemD, C, E, c and e - D is the only antigen routinely tested61
989068398D antigen- most immunogenic of all blood group antigens - D typing (Rh typing) is based on presence or absence of D when tested with anti- D62
989068399Weak D-D reactive at antiglobulin phase only - Must have negative D control to be valid - Weak D positive is considered D positive - Tested for weak D required on donor and OB patients63
989068400Monoclonal/Polyclonal anti-D- Separate D control not needed for A, B or O positive cells - A negative reaction with reagent anti-A and or Anti-B in patient cell typing is the negative control - D control needed for any AB positive and for any immediate spin negative cell carried through to AHG for weak D typing - If patient is AB positive, must use a 6-8% albumin control, autocontrol or DAT (patient A and B cells typed with reagent anti-A and anti-B will be positive in an AB positive patient - Most common cause of positive D control is a positive DAT64
989068401High protein anti-D- Generaly replaced by monoclonal or monoclonal/polycolonal blend reagents - If used, Must use D control produced by same manufacturer as the anti-D65
989068402Unusual phenotypesRh null - no D, C, E, c or e antigens - Cells have associated hemolytic anemia since Rh structure is integral part of Rbc membrane66
989068403Rh antibodiesIgG clinically significant - May agglutinate at 37C as well as AHG - Anti-C, -c, -E, -e react stronger with enzyme-treated cells67
989068404IgM antibodiesAnti- I, -H Anti-M, -N Anti-P1 Anti-Lea, -Leb68
989068405IgG antibodiesAnti-D Anti-C, -c Anti-E, -e Anti- M (some) Anti-K, -k Anti-Fya, -Fyb Anti-Jka, -Jkb69
989076498Lewis antigens-Plasma antigens that adsorb onto RBC's - Lea and Leb are not alleles - Not on cord blood - Antibodies a. Do not cause HDN (lewis antigens are not on fetal cells and lewis antibodies usually IgM) b. IgM antibody - can be hemolytic c. Usually only seen in Le(a-b-) persons d. Often seen in pregnant women who may temporarily become Le(a-b-)70
989076499I, i antigensI - absent or weak on cord cells - i converts to I as infant matures due to branching of carbohydrate chians - I and i are not alleles - Antibodes a. IgM cold antibody b. Reacts with all adult cells (except rare i adult) c. May mask clinically significant alloantibody d. Remove anti-I to detect underlying antibodies by: -An autoadsoption (recent transfused) or allogeneic adsorption - RESt adsorption - Prewarming serum and using IgG AHG instead of polyspecific71
989076500P antigen- P1 antigen strength deteriorates upon storage - Antibodies a. Anti-P1 -IgG cold antibody - Anti-P1 can be neutralized to reveal other clinically significant alloantibodies (P1 substance in hydatid cyst fluid) b. Anti-P - Autoantibody-IgG; Donath-Landsteiner biphasic antibody found in paroxysymal cold hemoglobinuria - Reacts with all P or P1 positive cells72
989296628MNSs antigensM/N and S/s are both codominant alleles -Anit-M and -N a. Usually cold IgM, No HDN b. Often show dosage (property whereby antibody reacts strongest with cells having a homozygous expression of antigen as opposed to heterozygous cells -Anti-M a. Many examples are IgG and can cause HDN b. May require acidification of serum to identify -Anti-S and anti-s a. IgG -Anti-U a. IgG b. Formed by african american individuals who lack S, s and U73
989588095Kell- K and k are codominant alleles - 91% are K negative - Antigens inactivated with 2-ME, DTT or AET - IgG74
989588096Kidd- Jka and Jkb are codominant alleles -IgG - React stronger with enzyme treated cells - Titers rise and fall rapidly - Associated with delayed transfusion reactions - Often show dosage75
989588097Duffy-Fya and Fyb are codominant alleles - 68% african americans are Fy(a-b-) - Antigens destroyed by enzymes - Antigen typing- Fy(a+b-) -Caucasians - homozygous for Fya (FyaFya) - African americans - Probably heterozygous for Fya (FyaFy-)- may show dosage76
989588098Paternity testingMaternity is assumed There is a chain of sample custody that must be adhered to in legal cases Molecular techniques are replacing serological methods -RBC blood groups with codominant alleles can be used for parentage testing along with HLA system and DNA analysis77
989841761Direct paternity testing-Direct exclusion - marker present in child, absent from father and mother78
989841790Indirect paternity testingIndirect exclusion - Child lacks a marker that the alleged father must transmit79
989841804enhancement mediaAlbumin LISS Enzymes polyethylene glycol80
989841807Albumin enhancement media-Bovine - ↓ net negative surface charge - Only ↑ antibody uptake if under low ionic conditions - Rh antibodies may show at 37°C81
989841810Low Ionic Strength Saline (LISS) enhancement media- ↑ antibody uptake which allows ↓ in incubation time82
989841812Enzymes enhancement media- bromelin, ficin, papain and trypsin - removes sialic acid which ↓ negative surface charge and promotes cell agglutination - ↑ reactivity of Rh, Kidd and Lewis antibodies - Usually ↑ warm and cold autoantibodies - Destroys M, N, S, Fya and Fyb antigens83
989841813Polyethylene glycol (PEG) enhancement media- ↑ antibody uptake - removes water which ↑ antibody concentration which promotes antibody uptake84
989841826DAT1. Antiglobulin added to 3-4 times washed cells 2. If cells coated in vivo, antiglobulin will react with the IgG antibody and/or complement (depending on type of AHG used) 3. EDTA sample is optimum - EDTA chelates CA++ preventing complement activation by plasma antibody (causes false + DAT) 4. Add check cells to all negative antiglobulin tests in antibody detection and compatibility testing85
989919392AHG reagents- Can be polycolonal, monoclonal or blends monocolonal or monocolonal/polycolonal - Polycolonal = Inject animal with purified IgG, IgA, IgM, C3 or C4 - Monoclonal = Hybridoma derived86
989919393Polyspecific AHGAntibody to human IgG and C3d component of complement - Other complement components may be present87
989919394Monospecific AHGAntibody to IgG or to C3b, C3d88
989919395AHG reagents cont.-Perform DAT with polyspecific to screen and monospecific to characterize the globulin - Perform IAT with monospecific anti-IgG to avoid cold, complement-binding antibodies -Use check cells to confirm all negative antiglobulin test in antibody detection and compatibility testing when using anti-IgG a. Confirms AHG added and not neutralized (insufficient removal of serum proteins prior to addition of AHG)89
989919396Elution principle- based on breaking antigen-antibody bound, removing antibody from cell surface - Used to determine antibody specificity in cases of positive DAT due to IgG antibodies (HDN and transfusion reactions)90
989919397Types of elutions-Lui freeze - thaw and heat - ABO antibodies - Low pH acid, digitonin-acid, cold acid, and dichloromethane - all antibodies - no single method best for all antibodies91
989919398Last wash control - elutions1. Prior to elution, red cells coated with antibody should be thoroughly washed to remove any residual serum antibody 2. Test "last wash" (supernatant) before performing elution or in parallel with eluate 3. "last wash" should show no reactivity with reagent cells 4. Positive test results using "last wash" indicate serum antibody contamination of supernatant- if performed before elution, wash agian- if performed in parallel, test invalid - repeat92
989919399Neutralization (inhibition) tests1. Soluble antigen can bind with antibody to inhibit a reaction with RBCs - allows detection of alloantibodies "masked" by the following antibodies a. Lewis substances - in saliva b. P1 substance - in hydatid cyst fluid and pigeon egg whites c. Sda substance - most abundant in urine d. ABH sugars- inhibit anti-A, -B, -H e. Chido and rodgers substances - epitopes of C4 (complement)93
989919400InactivationSulfhydryl reagents - AET and DTT - destroys or weakens Kell system - ZZAP - enzyme + DTT -- destroys Kell system and those systems destroyed by enzymes - DTT and 2-ME - destroys or diminishes activity of IgM antibodies94
990017269Adsorption-Used to a. Separate multiple antibodies b. Remove autoantibody- reveal alloantibody "masked" by autoantibody c. Confirm antigen existence on RBC d. Confirm antibody specificity -Autologous adsorption (patients own serum and cells) can be used for patients not recentlry transfused - Allogeneic adsorptions (patients serum and other cells) can be used on patients recently transfused95
990017270Gel testing - Column agglutination- Unagglutinated cells pass through gel - agglutinated cannot - Negative = cells at the bottom - Positive = The cells remain on the top or partially travel through the gel depending on agglutinate size -Phenotype cells when reagent antisera is in cell- agglutinate when exposed to antibody during centrifugation - Antiserum/Serum/Plasma and cells can be added together in the upper chamber - sensitized cells agglutinate when exposed to the IgG in the gel and cannot go through - DAT by gel- No washing needed - Only RBCs go through gel and sensitized cells agglutinate when exposed to IgG in the gel96
990049363Solid Phase- Antibody or antigen - fixed to a microwell plate a. Antibody fixed to plate * RBCs with the antigen are added * Adhere to antibody on sides of microplate b. Antigen fixed to plate * Plasma with the antibody is added * Antibody will adhere to antigen on sides * Wash: add check cells to attach to antibody - Positive reactions have cells adhering to sides of microwell plate - Negative reactions have RBC pellet at bottom of plate since no attachment97
990049364Pretransfusion testing samples- Serum or plasma from intended recipient - Labeled with 2 unique identifiers and date of collection - must have system to identify phlebotomist - Retain for a minimum of 7 days after transfusion98
990049365Pretransfusion tests- ABO and D grouping - Antibody screen - Crossmatch - Autocontrol not required - Compare current results with prior testing99
990049366Crossmatch-Patient serum mixed with donor RBCs - Observe for agglutination or hemolysis - Demonstrate ABO compatibility - Carry through to 37C incubation with AHG if current antibody screen positive or prior history of clinically significant antibodies100
990049367Immediate spinImmediate spin or electronic (computer) crossmatch if current antibody screen negative and no prior antibody history101
990049368Are antibodies required to be testedOnly test for ABO required if no clinically significant antibodies currently or in history -Electronic (computer) a. If validated system and other requirements met b. Two determinations of ABO group, one on current sample c. Donor confirmed for ABo and Rh (on negative units) d. System can verify correct data entry and contains logic to alert if mistakes made102
992132907Antigen typing-Patients with clinically significant antibodies should receive antigen negative units - Probability of finding antigen negative units a. Multiply antigen negative (compatible) % converted to decimal b. C = (70% pos : 30% neg) ; JKa = (75% pos: 25% neg) .30 X .25 = .075 or 7.5% - probably find 8 units/100neg for C and Jka c. Only need three units - 8/100 = 3x, X =300/8 = 37.5 d. Need to screen 38 units to find 3 units C neg and JKa neg -Confirm antigen negative status by reacting cells with commercial preparations of antibody - QC rarely used antisera on day use a. Pos control- Heterozygous cell (anti-K tested with a Kk cell rather than a KK cell) b. Neg control - cell withough antigen (anti-K tested with a kk cell)103
992140958ABO identical is not available for RBCs- Decide what antibody (ies) are in the patients plasma - Transfused cells must lack corresponding antigens - O rbcs can be given to any alternative blood group- A, B or AB - AB can receive A, B and O rbcs - D positive can receive D positive or D negative: D negative however should only revieve D positive in emergency situation and D neg is not available. ( follow iwth RhIg if possible)104
992140964ABO identical is not available for plasma- Decide what antigen (s) are on the patients RBCs - Transfused plasma should lack the corresponding antibody (ies) - AB plasma can be given to any alternative blood group - A, B or O - Group O can receive A, B or AB plasma105
992340132Neonatal crossmatch- Initial ABO (cell type only) and D typing of infant RBCs and screen for unexpected antibodies using mother or infant serum or plasma -Crossmatch not necessary as long as antibody screen negative - No repeat testing is required for infants < 4 months if first two are met - To issue non- O RBCs, Not ABO compatible with maternal ABO,must test for passively acquired maternal ABO antibodies using antiglobulin phase - If clinically significant antibodies exist, infant must get antigen negative blood or units crossmatch compatible by antiglobulin crossmatch until antibody no longer detected - Infants <1200 g at birth, recommend units with reduced risk of CMV: recommend irradiated cells.106
992384429Intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction-Transfused RBCs react with preformed antibodies in the recipient as transfusion is occurring - Usually due to clerical error involving ABO system - Fever- Most common symptom accompanied by chills, low back pain, anxiety - Physiological events a. Hemoglobinemia b. Hemoglobinuria c. Hyperbilirubinemia d. Can result in kidney failure and death107
992384430Extravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction- Usually due to anamnestic response to clinically significant antibodies such as Rh, Kell, Kidd and Duffy - Usually occurs after transfusion completed - Delayed transfusion reactions a. Hours to days after transfusion b. Indicated by NO rise or a ↓ in hemoglobin after transfusion c. positive DAT (key characteristic) d. Often due to Kidd antibodies108
992384431uticarial- Symptoms - itching and hives - If urticaria only symptoms, give antihistamine and transfusion may continue - Caused by donor antibodies to soluble plasma antigens109
992384432Febrile nonhemolytic (FNH)- Temperature rise associated with transfusion - Due to : Recipient preformed antibodies reacting with donor lymphocytes, granulocytes or platelets. Infusion of cytokines in donor bag from storage Prevention : Leukocyte-reduced blood components, Pre-storage leukoreduction prevents cytokine buildup and prevention usually considered after 2 separate febrile reactions110
992384433Allergic reaction- Recipient preformed IgE antibodies to soluble substance in plasma - Mild - uticarial - hives with itching - Give antihistamines and continue transfusion - Severe- anaphylaxis- systemic symptoms including hypotension, shock, sometimes death - Classic anaphylaxis- IgA deficient patient with anti-IgA reacting with IgA in donor plasma - Give washed cells or plasma components from IgA deficient donors111
992460463Transfusion- related acute lung injury- Acute respiratory insufficiency and bilateral pulmonary edema by X-ray without cardiac failure - includes chills, fever, and hypotension- TRALI - Donor antibodies to recipient HLA or neutrophil antigens - rarely, recipient antibodies to transfused granulocytes112
992460464Transfusion transmitted infections- Bacterial contamination is now most common since current tests detect most viruses. - All platelets must be tested for bacterial contamination before issue - Other diseases- HBV, HCV, HIV, HTLV, CMV, EBV, Babesiosis, Malaria, Chagas disease, West nile virus - "look back" - Identification of individuals who have recieved seronegative or untested blood from a donor later found to be infected - Must have mechanism to encourage reporting of possible transfusion- associated infections113
992460465Transfusion reaction workup- Clerical check- Most hemolytic transfusion reactions result from administering blood to the incorrect patient - Visual hemolysis- Compare with pre-transfusion sample- - DAT - May be negative if all incompatible cells are destroyed - ABO antibodies rapidly activate complement leading to lysis - ABO- ABO on post sample - Other tests - If error in any of above test :perform antibody screen pre/post-sample and re-crossmatch pre-post samples114
992460466Positive hemolysis/Negative DAT-Patient in sickle cell crisis - Thalassemia or G6PD deficient patient - Unit overheated/frozen - All cells hemolyzed115
992534767Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn etiology- Infant inherits antigen form biological father - Mother has corresponding IgG antibody (sensitized by previous pregnancies or transfusions) - Maternal antibody crosses placenta and coats fetal cells - Coated cells removed from fetal circulation causing anemia and hyperbilirubinemia - Bilirubin has affinity for lipid rich layers of skin and brain and is a ptoent neurotoxin causing brain damage (kernicterus) - Phottherapy is treatment of choice; exchange transfusion used when phototherapy fails116
992534768Intrauterine tranfusion- Supplies antigen negative blood - Unit selected a. Group O, D neg b. Negative for antigen to which maternal antibody directed (compatible with maternal antibody) c. Must be irradiated d. Should be from CMV seronegative donor or a leukoreduced unit if mother status CMV negative or unknown e. Should be negative for Hgb S f. Should be fresh- usually less than 7 days old117
992534769Exchange transfusion- Reduces bilirubin levels and removes maternal antibodies - Adds nitrogen negative cells and removes antibody-coated cells which would ↑ bilirubin levels when destroyed - Acceptable samples for crossmatch a. Maternal sample b. Eluate from infant's cells c. Infant serum Unit selection a. Negative for antigen to which maternal antibody directed (compatible with maternal antibody) b. Group ), if ABO HDN- D negative if Rh HDN c. Unit should be less than 5-7 days old collected in CPDA-1 d. Should be negative for Hbg S e. Should be irradiated118
992593972RH immune GlobinConcentrated Anti-D - Antepartum administration given at 28 weeks to all D negative women and again within 72 hours of delivery to D negative women with D positive infants119
992593984Preparation of RhIgIntramuscular RhIg -1 vial (300mg or 1500IU ) neutralizes 30 mL whole hemorrhage (FMH) or 15mL of RBCs IM or Intravenous preparation - 1 vial neutralizes 17 mL or 15mL RBCs120
992593985Rosette test-Used to screen if more than one vial of RhIg is needed - If positive - Kleihauer-Betke acid elution or flow cytometry will quantitate fetal maternal bleed (fetal cells resist acid elution and appear pink while adult cells are ghost cells)121
992593986Calculation of number of vials with addition of a safety vial1. Using Kleihauer-Betke test, count a total of 2000 cells, not the number of fetal and maternal cells 2. Divide the number of fetal cells by 2000 and multiple by 5000 to determine volume of fetal whole blood bleed a. 8 cells/2000 cells X 5000 mL = 20 mL fetal whole blood bleed 3. Divide by 30 since 1 vial of RhIg will neutralize 30mL of fetal blood a. 20mL/30mL= .66 vial 4. If decimal greater than .5 round up 1 and add 1 for safety factor 5. If decimal less that .5 round down and add 1 for safety factor 6.in this case, round up to .66 to 1 and add 1 for a total of 2 vials122
992593987RhIg can be given to a D negative recipient who receives D pos blood- Number of vials is determined by dividing the volume transfused by 30 for whole blood or 15 for RBCs - Should be considered for any women of childbearing age123
992593988HLA system- Human Leukocyte antigens - Cell surface glycoproteins a. Class 1 - On platelets and nucleated cells (mature RBCs may have small amounts) b. Class 2 - On B lymphs - Monocte/Macrophages, T lymphs and dendritic cells - Genes located on short arm of chromosome 6 (major histocompatibility complex)124
992593989HLA recognition- Contributes to self/non-self recongition - immune response - coordination of cellular and humoral responses - Second in importance only to ABO for long-term survival of transplanted solid organs and most important in hematopoietic progenitor cell transplantation125
992593990HLA function- Plays a role in a. Immune-mediated platelet refractoriness b. FNH-TR c. TRALI d. Posttransfusion graft-vs-host disease (GVHD) - Used for a. Susceptibility to certian disease b. Relationship (percentage) testing c. Forensic investigations126
992593991Detection HLADNA-based assay - High sensitivity and specificity Microlymphocytotoxicity - HLA-A, -B, -C, -DR, -DQ -Principle similiar to RBC typing only uses WBCs, rabbit complement, and dye exclusion technique to determine cell viability/death127
992593992Qc reagent- Reagents - each day of use a. Antihuman globulin b. Blood grouping reagents c. Antibody screening and reverse grouping cells Results - compare with previous results - inactivity implies reagent deterioration Antiglobulin reagent a. Required that IgG sensitized cells be added to all negative antiglobulin tests in antibody detection and compatibility testing b. negative test implies- Insufficient removal of serum proteins prior to addition of AHG (insufficient washing which allowed AHG to be neutralized by remianing serum). Ommision of AHG from procedure and must repeat tests128
992593993equipment QC- Hot blocks/waterbaths- 37°C ± 2 - observe temp day of use - Refrigerates - 1-6°C (as well as alarm activation checks) - Serofuge/cell washer - Timer checks, speed, Function- are cell buttons clearly delineated, is supernatant clear, do cells re-suspend with gentle agitation. -Component centrifuge - Thermometers- Tested initially129

Campbell Biology 7th Edition Chapter 18 Genetics of Virus and Bacteria Flashcards

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1245518617A lambda phage which is capable of a lytic and lysogenic cycle is known as a:Temperate phage.0
1245518618How can Lysogenic conversion can make a bacterium more virulent?By a temperate phage inducing a change in the bacteria it infects, making it release exotoxins.1
1245518619Viroidsviruses that infect plants.2
1245518620Prionsinfectious proteins that cause brain diseases in mammals. Diseases are Creutzfeldt-Jakob , B S E.3
1245518621TransformationUptake of naked DNA by a bacteria.4
1245518622TransductionViral bacteriophages carry bacterial genes from one host cell to another.5
1245518623ConjugationIs the direct transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells that are temporarily joined by sex pilli.6
1245518624Transposable elements also known as transposons.Can move around within a cell's genome, Are often called jumping genes, Contribute to genetic shuffling in bacteria.7
1245518625Alu sequence.Is the most common form of transposable element in humans.8
1245518626repressible operonBinding of a specific repressor protein to the operator Represses transcription. Negative regulation.9
1245518627inducible operonBinding an inducer to a repressor inactivates the repressor and Induces transcription. Negative regulation of the repressor itself.10

Campbell Biology 9th Edition - Chapter 18 Flashcards

Regulation of Gene Expression

Terms : Hide Images
1200528613operatorregion of DNA that controls RNA polymerase's access to a set of genes with related functions0
1200528614operona unit of genetic function found in bacteria and phages, consisting of a promoter, an operator, and a coordinately regulated cluster of genes whose products function in a common pathway.1
1200528615repressorprotein that binds to the operator in an operon to switch off transcription2
1200528616corepressora small molecule that cooperates with a repressor protein to switch an operon off3
1200528617regulatory geneA gene that codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.4
1200528618inducerA specific small molecule that inactivates the repressor in an operon.5
1200528619cAMPis a second messenger important in many biological processes. is derived from adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and used for intracellular signal transduction in many different organisms, conveying the cAMP-dependent pathway.6
1200528620activatorA protein that binds to DNA and stimulates transcription of a specific gene.7
1200528621lac operona gene system whose operator gene and three structural genes control lactose metabolism in E. coli8
1200528622differential gene expressionThe expression of different sets of genes by cells with the same genome.9
1200528623histone acetylationthe attachment of acetyl groups (-COCH3) to certain amino acids of histone proteins, the chromatin becomes less compact, and the DNA is accessible for transcription10
1200528624DNA methylationThe addition of methyl groups (—CH3) to bases of DNA after DNA synthesis; may serve as a long-term control of gene expression.11
1200528625epigenetic inheritanceInheritance of traits transmitted by mechanisms not directly involving the nucleotide sequence.12
1200528626control elementssegments of noncoding DNA that help regulate transcription by binding certain proteins13
1200528627enhancersA DNA sequence that recognizes certain transcription factors that can stimulate transcription of nearby genes.14
1200528628alternative RNA splicingin which different mRNA molecules are produced from the same primary transcript, depending on which RNA segments are treated as exons and which as introns15
1200528629proteasomesa giant protein complex that recognizes and destroys proteins tagged for elimination by the small protein ubiquitin16
1200528630miRNAa class of functional RNA that regulates the amount of protein produced by a eukaryotic gene17
1200528631RNAia way of assessing the function of a gene by introducing special transgenic constructs to inactivate its mRNA18
1200528632siRNAclass of double-stranded RNAs about 23 nucleotides in length that silence gene expression; act by either promoting the degradation of mRNAs with precisely complementary sequences or by inhibiting the transcription of genes containing precisely complementary sequences19
1200528633cytoplasmic determinantsThe maternal substances in the egg that influence the course of early development by regulating the expression of genes that affect the developmental fate of cells.20
1200528634differentiationchange in structure and function of a cell as it matures; specialization21
1200528635morphogenA substance governing the pattern of tissue development and, in particular, the positions of the various specialized cell types within a tissue. It spreads from a localized source and forms a concentration gradient across a developing tissue.22
1200528636inductionThe process in which one group of embryonic cells influences the development of another, usually by causing changes in gene expression.23
1200528637determinationThe point during development at which a cell becomes committed to a particular fate (sensory, other, etc.). Note that the cell is not differentiated at this point; determination comes before differentiation. Determination can be due to cytoplasmic effects or to induction by neighboring cells.24
1200528638pattern formationThe development of a multicellular organism's spatial organization, the arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in three-dimensional space.25
1200528639positional informationSignals to which genes regulating development respond, indicating a cell's location relative to other cells in an embryonic structure.26
1200528640embryonic lethalsMutations with phenotypes leading to death at the embryo or larval stage.27
1200528641homeotic genesAny of the genes that control the overall body plan of animals by controlling the developmental fate of groups of cells.28
1200528642maternal effect genesA gene that, when mutant in the mother, results in a mutant phenotype in the offspring, regardless of the genotype.29
1200528643bicoidA maternal effect gene that codes for a protein responsible for specifying the anterior end in Drosophila.30
1200528644egg polarity genesAnother name for maternal effect genes, these genes control the orientation (polarity) of the egg, one group sets up the anterior posterior axis, while the other sets up the dorsal ventrtal axis.31
1200528645morphogenesisdevelopment of body form and organization32
1200528646oncogenesgenes that cause cancer by blocking the normal controls on cell reproduction33
1200528647proto-oncogenesnormal cellular genes that are important regulators of normal cellular processes, they promote growth. alterations in the expression of these cells resulr in oncogenes34
1200528648ras geneThis gene codes for Ras protein, a G protein that relays a growth signal from a growth-factor receptor on the plasma membrane to a cascade of protein kinases that ultimately results in the stimulation of the cell cycle. Many ras oncogenes have a point mutation that leads to a hyperactive version of the Ras protein that can lead to excessive cell division.35
1200528649p53 geneThe "guardian angel of the genome," p53 is expressed when a cell's DNA is damaged. Its product, p53 protein, functions as a transcription factor for several genes.36
1200528650tumor suppressor genesGenes which code for proteins that suppress tumor formation by applying brakes on cell proliferation. (mutation that creates a deficiency would contribute to carcinogenesis)37

Ethics & Social Responsibility - Chapter 1 Flashcards

Terms : Hide Images
1614187280act utilitarianismA consequentialist ethical theory that claims an action is right if it is the act that generates the greatest good for the greatest number.0
1614187281argumentA set of sentences (premises) put forth to establish a claim (conclusion); the set of premises and conclusion form the argument.1
1614187282beliefA claim that is held to be true.2
1614187283conclusionThe result of an argument, or what the argument seeks to establish.3
1614187284deductive argumentA kind of reasoning in which a conclusion is shown to follow necessarily from the premises.4
1614187285deontologyA nonconsequentialist ethical theory that claims an act is to be evaluated in terms of its accordance with a specified set of rules.5
1614187286dialecticalDescribing a specific mode of argument; also a term characterizing an interdependent relationship between or among two or more things.6
1614187287emotivismA meta-ethical view that claims ethical statements are merely expressions of one's emotion toward a given act, not based on facts or moral realities.7
1614187288ethical egoismAn ethical view that argues acts should be done out of a person's self-interest.8
1614187289Golden MeanThe middle, or mean, between two extremes; prominent in Aristotle's discussion of virtue.9
1614187290inductiveDescribes a kind of reasoning in which a conclusion is based on a set of reasons that do not conclusively establish that conclusion.10
1614187291intuitionsA general term used to refer to views that are spontaneous or not necessarily the result of considered, rational reflection.11
1614187292justified beliefA claim that a person holds on the basis of evidence and reason sufficient to claim that the belief is warranted or legitimate.12
1614187293knowledge claimThe assertion of something as factual or objectively true.13
1614187294logicThe study of arguments and how they are put together.14
1614187295noncognitiveDescribes a meta-ethical view that denies there are moral facts, or real moral truths; the denial that moral claims can be determined to be true or false.15
1614187296opinionA subjectively based claim that does not necessarily appeal to reason or evidence.16
1614187297premiseA reason put forth in argument to support a claim or conclusion.17
1614187298psychological egoismThe view that people, in fact, do whatever it is that maximizes their utility.18
1614187299relativismThe view that moral claims are relative to an individual or community, and do not have objective value or truth.19
1614187300rule utilitarianismA consequentialist ethical theory that claims an action is right if it is in accordance with a rule that generates the greatest good for the greatest number.20
1614187301sentenceA linguistic unit of meaning designed to assert something; often said to require both a subject and a predicate as minimal components.21
1614187302soundnessThe characteristic of a deductive argument that is valid, and the premises of which are true.22
1614187303utilitarianismA consequentialist ethical theory that evaluates moral claims in terms of their outcomes, and to the extent these outcomes generate the greatest benefit for the greatest number.23
1614187304validityThe characteristic of a deductive argument requiring the truth of the conclusion if the truth of the premises is accepted.24
1614187305virtue ethicsAn ethical theory that focuses on the character of the agent in evaluating moral behavior, in contrast to utilitarianism or deontology; often associated with Aristotle.25

APUSH Chapter 23 Flashcards

APUSH chapter twenty-three vocabulary.

Terms : Hide Images
1968739907Waving the Bloody ShirtThis was the name for the action of Republicans of reviving bloody images of the war in order to try to drum up support for their candidate for the 1868 election, Ulysses S. Grant.0
1968739908Jim FiskThis millionaire was the partner of Jay Gould, and he provided the brass to their partnership. They concocted a plot to conquer the gold market by planning to get Grant to refrain from selling gold from the treasury.1
1968739909Jay GouldThis millionaire was the partner of Jim Fisk, and he provided the brains to their partnership. They concocted a plot to conquer the gold market by planning to get Grant to refrain from selling gold from the treasury.2
1968739910William Marcy "Boss" TweedThis man ran the Tweed Ring in New York City which showed the corruption of the time period in his actions of bribery, graft, and fraudulent elections to milk as much as 200 million dollars from NYC.3
1968739911Thomas NastThis gifted cartoonist pilloried Tweed mercilessly after he rejected a heavy bribe to desist. Tweed objected to the pictures largely because his illiterate followers could not help but see them and be influenced by them.4
1968739912Credit MobilierThis scandal erupted in 1872 and involved followers creating a false company and then hiring themselves at vastly inflated prices to work on the railroad. This was the first scandal which really hurt Grant and the Congress.5
1968739913Whiskey ringThis ring robbed the Treasury of millions in excise-tax revenues from 1874-75 in a long scandal which included Grant actually trying to help to exonerate the thieves, furthering poor public view of scandal and corruption in the government.6
1968739914Liberal republicansThis new category of political party was created by the rising disgust for Grantism, and was formed of reform-minded citizens whose slogan was "Turn the Rascals Out", and muffed their chance of nomination by nominating Horace Greeley for the presidency, who, although a good candidate, was too erratic to be elected.7
1968739915Horace GreeleyThis man was the Liberal Republican's candidate and was too erratic and eccentric to be nominated.8
1968739916General Amnesty ActPassed so that ex-Confederates could again vote and hold seats in the government. The few that were denied the privilege of this act were Confederate leaders or those who committed egregious crimes during the Civil War.9
1968739917Resumption ActThis act pledged the government to the further withdrawal of greenbacks from circulation and to the redemption of all paper currency in gold at face value, beginning in 1879.10
1968739918Crime of '73This was assailed by debtors and westerners and silver-mining states, and had to do with the forced decrease in silver prices.11
1968739919Greenback Labor PartyThis was spawned by the Republican hard-money policy and polled over a million votes and elected fourteen members in Congress, proving the contest over monetary policy was ongoing.12
1968739920Grand Army of the Republican (GAR)An important contributor to Republican ballots, this group was a politically potent fraternal organization of several hundred thousand Union veterans of the Civil War.13
1968739921Stalwarts, Senator Roscoe ConklingThis faction of Republicans embraced the time-honored system of swapping civil-service jobs for votes. They were opposed by the Half-Breeds.14
1968739922Half-Breeds, Senator James G. BlaineThese men opposed the Stalwarts believed that the president shouldn't be able to dish out civil-service jobs after he got elected, but that a specific Civil Service committee should decide who got the jobs.15
1968739923Hayes vs. Tilden, 1876Hayes was the Republican candidate while Tilden was the Democratic candidate, and the election between them was disputed.16
1968739924Compromise of 1877This compromise broke the deadlock of the election of 1876 through the Electoral Count Act.17
2137160836Jim Crow lawsThese were laws enacted by the South largely in the years 1875 to 1900, which established a segregated system for blacks and whites, and was founded on the basis that "separate but equal" was constitutional (as established in the Plessy v. Ferguson case in 1896).18
2137160837Plessy v. Ferguson, 1896This Supreme Court decision is very well known and essentially stated that 'separate, but equal' facilities were legal under the Constitution. This decision helped to rivet Jim Crow laws as legal.19
2137160838Chinese Exclusion Act, 1882This was passed after white and Irish laborers grew annoyed with Chinese laborers taking what they viewed as their jobs. They managed to get a law passed that essentially said that Chinese were not allowed into the country. This would continue until 1943, when the U.S. allied with the Chinese during World War II.20
2137160839James GarfieldThis man was elected in 1880 as the Republican candidate. Unfortunately, he got caught up in a political spat between the Half-Breeds and Stalwarts only a few weeks after his election, and then before it could be resolved, he was shot in the back by Charles Guiteau. He lived for eleven weeks in extreme pain before he finally died at the end of 1881. He was replaced by Chester Arthur, his Stalwart vice president.21
2137160840Charles GuiteauThis is the mentally deranged man who shot James Garfield. He was a Stalwart, and believed that when Arthur took over after Garfield died, his view of civil service appointments would win out.22
2137160841Chester ArthurThis man was James Garfield's vice president, and a ardent Stalwart supporter. He took over after Garfield was shot by Guiteau, and actually turned out to be a good stand-in for Garfield. He didn't cave to the Stalwarts but the Republicans were ungrateful and he was not nominated for a second term.23
2137160842Pendleton Act, 1883This made compulsory donations to campaigns illegal, and established the Civil Service Commission to appoint federal jobs. This was largely a result of what happened to Garfield, and spearheaded by Chester Arthur.24
2137160843Mugwumps, 1884These were the Republicans who ran to the Democratic party because they didn't like the Republican nomination in 1884 of James G. Blaine.25
2137160844Thomas B. ReedHe became the leader of the House in 1888 when the Republicans took the White House back. He was a strict and eloquent speaker and very harsh. He helped to raise taxes to their highest peacetime rate in 1890 with the McKinley Tariff Act, but then he was kicked out of office with 1890 elections due to these issues.26
2137160845McKinley Tariff Act, 1890This was established by the Republican-led house in 1890 by Thomas B. Reed, and raised tariff rates to the highest peacetime rate ever, 48.4% on all dutiable goods.27
2137160846PopulistsThis third party rose up in 1892 and created a good showing in the 1892 election. They were led mostly by farmers who didn't appreciate the high tariff rates and their lack of protection in the international markets.28
2137160847Homestead Steel Strike, 1892This strike represented the great increase in strikes, and was a result of a great increase in steel prices but drop in workers' wages. The military had to be brought in to put it down.29
2137160848Depression of 1893This depression was the worst one in the 19th century and occurred just as Cleveland took office, and ended just as he left office. The government ended up having to be bailed out by a big bank in NYC, which a lot of people hated, but was good for America's economy.30
2137160849Wilson-Gorman Tariff, 1894In this the Democrats tried to lower tariffs. Cleveland allowed the bill, mainly because it didn't much hurt the tariff rates, but it annoyed him. This also kind of angered American people (?) and it helped to drive the Democrats out of office during the next Congressional election, putting Republicans once more back in power.31

Field Ecology FINAL!!!! Flashcards

Reading Weeks: 2,4,7,9,10
Problems Weeks: 2,sept 10, 4,7, linear regression, 9, H. demography, island

Terms : Hide Images
1090206377chi-square: GOFwhat is the goodness of fit of observed to expected results; comparison yields a number known as the x²; categorical data0
1090206378chi-square: Test of Independencetesting the ratio is the same in both habitats; the proportion of mantids that are female or male is independent of the habitat from which we have collected our specimens1
1090621605t-testcontinuous data e.g. collect data on lengths or weights of individuals; to see if one set is significantly different than that of the other2
1090621606p-valuecritical value3
1090625331see midterm14
1090760003Population dispersionuse possion5
1090760004pr[x=b]the probability that x, the observed number of individuals in a quadrat will equal b6
1090760005ba given number of individuals per quadrat7
1090760006moverall mean number of individuals per quadrat8
1090760007emath constant9
1090760008Pr[x=b]= (m^b/b!) e^-m10
1090760009linear regression...11
1090760011regression coefficient...12
1090760012coefficient of determination13
1090760013F-statistics: null hypothesisabundance doesn't differ significantly among the mulitple areas that we have sample within this large stand14
1090760014ANOVA interpretationfor comparing multiple means; comparing two, independent estimates of variance associated with individual data point with in the full data set15
1090760015estimate of variance: within groupsthe average of the individual variances associated with the data point within groups or experimental treatments; independent from the other16
1090760016estimate of variance: among groupsbased on and calculated from differences among means of groups or treatments; independent from the other17
1090760017Logic of ANOVA 1if there is no real difference in means among the different groups then the two estimates of variance among individuals should be equal18
1090760018Logic of ANOVA 2if at least some of the groups really do differ from each other in their means, then the variance as measured among groups should be greater than the variance as measured within groups19
1090760010f-statistics 1testing whether the ratio of the variance among groups to the variance within groups differs significantly from the expected value of 1 under the null that all of the means are the same;20
1090783237f-statistics 2if it differs significantly from 1 null is rejected; at least one other mean is different21
1090783238model Ifixed effects design, the researcher applies a fixed treatment to each randomly selected subject22
1090783239model IIrandom effects design; the researcher is simply interested in comparing means among different populations23
1090783240mean squarevariance; calculated by dividing the sum of squares (SS) by the adjusted number of observation (df)24
1096099530see midterm IImidtermII25
1090783241Species-Area curvemultiple areas needed; interested only in the equilibrium number of species26
1094799581McArthur/ Wilson Island Theoryhow will number of species increase over time27
1094799582Inumber of species arriving over unit time28
1094799583Enumber species goin extinct on island over unit time29
1094799584pspecies pool30
1094799585Emaxonly goes as far as p31
1094799586Et[Emax/p] R32
1094799587ItImax -[Imax/p] R33
1094799588∆RRt+1 -Rt34
1094799589Rt+1 -RtIt-Et35
1094799590Rt+1Rt+It-Et36
1094799591E linearmR+b37
1094799592∧RImaxP/Imax +Emax38
1094799593life tablesthe likelihoods of living and dying at given ages39
1094799594demographyrates of births and deaths of a population40
1094824348Nxnumber of individuals alive at the start of age interval x41
1094824349Dxthe number of individuals dying during the interval42
1094824350lxNx/N₀ ; the proportion of the original population still alive at hte start of the interval43
1094824351dx,Dx/N₀ ; the probability from birth of dying during the interval44
1094824352qxDx/Nx ; the rate of mortality during the interval45
1094939187exthe mean life expectancy at age x or the mean lifetime remaining to those individuals entering each age interval; Yx/Nx46
1094939188Yx[5×Nx+1] + [2.5× Dx] ; equal the sum of all the "person-years" for age classes older than and including the one for which the life expectancy calculation is being made47
1094939189Fertility tablesindicate the mean number of female offspring produced by a female of age x ( the fertility rate, bx)48
1094939190lxbxdetermine the average number of female offspring that a newborn individual is expected to produce when she reaches age x49
1094939191R₀∑lxbx values = net reproductive rate for the population50
1094939192population momentuma population can continue to grow for a time even after birth rates fall (or death rate rise) such that the net reprod. rate drops below 151
1094939193current growth rateof a population thus depends not only on its mortality and fertility rates but also on its present age distribution52
1094939194stable age distributionthe proportion of individuals belonging to each age class will remain the same over time53
1094939195Gompertz law1825; which holds that mortality rates increase exponentially with age; if true it implies that for any spp the death rate will climb dramatically in very old age, effectively capping the life span; it does hold for human whose chance of death 2x roughly every 8 yrs. during most of adulthood54
1094939196recent data challenging gompertz lawMediterranean fruit flies; the risk of death on a given day peaks in old age and then declines; shows a leveling off of the risk of death for 10 diff. strains;55
1094939197does there appear to be an absolute limit to human life spanNo gompertz law and the scandinavian census doesn't apply to the oldest of old; it didn't increase exponentially56
1094939198summarize why vaupel conversely sees us living longer and longer...57
1095868996Olshansky argues human life expectancy at birth will exceed the age of 85 or so...58
1095868997how much have the general thoughts and arguments changed since 1992 whether there is or isn't an absolute limit to human lifespan...59
1095868998what observation lead a number of marine biologists to argue that banning commercial fishing from habitat patches covering 20-35% of the ocean along the Cali. coastline may actually boost fisheries catches in teh remaining areas...60
1095868999how many people has the world's population grown since rousch was written...61
1095869000what were the current doubling times of Africa vs. Europe at the time rousch was written...62
1095869001what is the size that the creators of the "cairo doc" hope to limit the human pop. to by 2050...63
1095869002why would the human pop. be likely to increase markedly in size over the next 50 years even if fertility rates were to drop to replacement level immediately throughout the world...64
1095869003what are the 3 major mechanisms expoused by the Cairo Prog. Actions means to curb the growth of the human pop....65
1096096263what major issues led some demographers to question the likely effectiveness of these 3 major mechanisms...66
1096096264what are the key elements of the demograhpic transition theory that led to the recommendations of the first UN conference in 1974?...67
1096096265If fertility rates remain constant at current levels, how many people does the UN project there will be 2100...68
1096096266in which region of the world has life expectancy in 2005-2010 most increased since 1950-1955...69
1096096267when did the world's population growth rate peak...70
1096096268what would you estimate R² to equal in the graphs of fertility/education/ poverty in 2007...71
1096096269on which continent will the greatest number of people likely live by 2050...72
1096096270is this the continent with fastest growth rate projected for the next forty years...73
1096096271which of the twelve largest cities in the world in 1975 are projected NOT to be among the twelve largest cities in 2025...74

AP Biology Campbell Reece Chapter 18 Vocab Flashcards

AP Biology 8th edition chapter 18 vocab
by Campbell and Reece

Terms : Hide Images
2196894428activatorA protein that binds to DNA and stimulates gene transcription. In prokaryotes, activators bind in or near the promoter; in eukaryotes, activators bind to control elements in enhancers.0
2196894429alternative RNA splicingA type of eukaryotic gene regulation at the RNA-processing level in which different mRNA molecules are produced from the same primary transcript, depending on which RNA segments are treated as exons and which as introns.1
2196894430bicoidA maternal effect gene that codes for a protein responsible for specifying the anterior end in Drosophila.2
2196894431cell differentiationThe structural and functional divergence of cells as they become specialized during a multicellular organism's development. Cell differentiation depends on the control of gene expression.3
2196894432control elementA segment of noncoding DNA that helps regulate transcription of a gene by binding a transcription factor. Multiple control elements are present in a eukaryotic gene's enhancer.4
2196894433corepressorA small molecule that binds to a bacterial repressor protein and changes its shape, allowing it to switch an operon off.5
2196894434cyclic AMP (cAMP)A ring-shaped molecule made from ATP that is a common intracellular signaling molecule (second messenger) in eukaryotic cells. It is also a regulator of some bacterial operons.6
2196894435cytoplasmic determinantA maternal substance, such as a protein or RNA, placed into an egg that influences the course of early development by regulating the expression of genes that affect the developmental fate of cells.7
2196894436determinationThe progressive restriction of developmental potential in which the possible fate of each cell becomes more limited as an embryo develops. At the end of determination, a cell is committed to its fate.8
2196894437differential gene expressionThe expression of different sets of genes by cells with the same genome.9
2196894438egg-polarity geneA gene that helps control the orientation (polarity) of the egg; also called a maternal effect gene.10
2196894439embryonic lethalA mutation with a phenotype leading to death of an embryo or larva.11
2196894440enhancerA segment of eukaryotic DNA containing multiple control elements, usually located far from the gene whose transcription it regulates.12
2196894441epigenetic inheritanceInheritance of traits transmitted by mechanisms not directly involving the nucleotide sequence of a genome.13
2196894442feedback inhibitionA method of metabolic control in which the end product of a metabolic pathway acts as an inhibitor of an enzyme within that pathway.14
2196894443genomic imprintingA phenomenon in which expression of an allele in offspring depends on whether the allele is inherited from the male or female parent.15
2196894444histoneA small protein with a high proportion of positively charged amino acids that binds to the negatively charged DNA and plays a key role in chromatin structure.16
2196894445histone acetylationThe attachment of acetyl groups to certain amino acids of histone proteins.17
2196894446homeotic geneAny of the master regulatory genes that control placement and spatial organization of body parts in animals, plants, and fungi by controlling the developmental fate of groups of cells.18
2196894447inducerA specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial repressor protein and changes the repressor's shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.19
2196894448inductionThe process in which one group of embryonic cells influences the development of another, usually by causing changes in gene expression.20
2196894449maternal effect geneA gene that, when mutant in the mother, results in a mutant phenotype in the offspring, regardless of the offspring's genotype. Maternal effect genes were first identified in Drosophila.21
2196894450microRNA (miRNA)A small, single-stranded RNA molecule, generated from a hairpin structure on a precursor RNA transcribed from a particular gene. This associates with one or more proteins in a complex that can degrade or prevent translation of an mRNA with a complementary sequence.22
2196894451morphogenA substance, such as Bicoid protein in Drosophila, that provides positional information in the form of a concentration gradient along an embryonic axis.23
2196894452morphogenesisThe development of body shape and organization.24
2196894453oncogeneA gene found in viral or cellular genomes that is involved in triggering molecular events that can lead to cancer.25
2196894454operatorIn bacterial DNA, a sequence of nucleotides near the start of an operon to which an active repressor can attach. The binding of the repressor prevents RNA polymerase from attaching to the promoter and transcribing the genes of the operon.26
2196894455operonA unit of genetic function found in bacteria and phages, consisting of a promoter, an operator, and a coordinately regulated cluster of genes whose products function in a common pathway.27
2196894456p53 geneA tumor-suppressor gene that codes for a specific transcription factor that promotes the synthesis of cell cycle-inhibiting proteins.28
2196894457pattern formationThe development of a multicellular organism's spatial organization, the arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in three-dimensional space.29
2196894458polypThe sessile variant of the cnidarian body plan. The alternate form is the medusa.30
2196894459positional informationMolecular cues that control pattern formation in an animal or plant embryonic structure by indicating a cell's location relative to the organism's body axes. These cues elicit a response by genes that regulate development.31
2196894460proteasomeA giant protein complex that recognizes and destroys proteins tagged for elimination by the small protein ubiquitin.32
2196894461proto-oncogeneA normal cellular gene that has the potential to become an oncogene.33
2196894462ras geneA gene that codes for a G protein that relays a growth signal from a growth factor receptor on the plasma membrane to a cascade of protein kinases, ultimately resulting in stimulation of the cell cycle.34
2196894463regulatory geneA gene that codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.35
2196894464repressorA protein that inhibits gene transcription. In prokaryotes, repressors bind to the DNA in or near the promoter. In eukaryotes, repressors may bind to control elements within enhancers, to activators, or to other proteins in a way that blocks activators from binding to DNA.36
2196894465RNA interference (RNAi)A technique used to silence the expression of selected genes. Uses synthetic double-stranded RNA molecules that match the sequence of a particular gene to trigger the breakdown of the gene's messenger RNA.37
2196894466small interfering RNA (siRNA)A small, single-stranded RNA molecule generated by cellular machinery from a long, double-stranded RNA molecule. This associates with one or more proteins in a complex that can degrade or prevent translation of an mRNA with a complementary sequence. In some cases, it can also block transcription by promoting chromatin modification.38
2196894467tumor-suppressor geneA gene whose protein product inhibits cell division, thereby preventing the uncontrolled cell growth that contributes to cancer.39

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